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What Is CDS Exam (Combined Defence Services Examination)

Discover the CDS Exam, which becomes an opening to membership in the Indian Military. Crucial information to launch your defence profession.

What is CDS Exam?

  • It is written test conducted by UPSC two times every year for entries into these academies. CDS written exam has three different tests namely English, General Knowledge and Mathematics.
  • Notification Month of this Exam: March (CDS II) and August (CDS I)
  • Examination Conducted in the months of February (CDS I) and August (CDS II).

Also Read CDS 2 2024: Application (Out), Notification, Eligibility, Pattern, Syllabus & More

Age Limit for CDS Examination

  • 19-24 Years of age for Indian Military Academy
  • 19-22 Years of age for Naval Academy
  • 19-23 Years of age for Air Force Academy
  • 19-25 Years of age for Officers’ Training Academy

Educational Qualification for CDS Examination

  • Degree of a recognized University or equivalent for IMA and OTA
  • B.Sc. with Physics & Mathematics or Bachelor of Engg. for Naval Academy
  • B.Sc. with Physics and/or Mathematics or Bachelor of Engg. for Air Force Academy

Also Read UPSC CDS 2024: Application (Out), Alert, Time, Schedule, Qualifications, Courses, and Up-to-Date Information.

The Indian Military Academy (IMA)

  • An officer-training academy of the Indian Army in Dehradun, Uttarakhand.
  • It was established in 1932 following a recommendation by a military committee set up under the chairmanship of Field Marshal Philip Chetwode.
  • Cadets undergo a training course varying between 3 and 16 months depending on entry criteria.
  • Colours of IMA: Blood Red and Steel Grey.
  • Motto of IMA: “Veerta aur Vivek” “वीरता और विवेक
  • Mission of IMA: To train future military leaders of the Indian Army, goes hand in hand with the character building enshrined in the IMA honour code, warrior code and motto.
  • Cadets take part in a variety of sports, adventure activities, physical training, drills, weapons training, and leadership development activities.

The Indian Naval Academy (INA)

  • Initial Officer Training Academy of Indian Navy
  • Location: Ezhimala, Kannur, Kerala
  • INA conducts basic training for all officers inducted into the Indian Navy and Indian Coast Guard.
  • INA is the largest Naval Academy in Asia.
  • Inaugurated on 8th January 2009
  • Motto in Sanskrit: “Vidyayaa Amrutam Ashnute” “विद्ययाऽमृतमश्नुते

Mission of INA: To develop the trainees morally, mentally, physically and to imbibe in them the high ideals of loyalty, valour and patriotism in order to provide the service with officers who are dedicated to a career of Naval Service and have potential for future development to assume the highest responsibility of leadership.

The Air Force Academy (AFA)

  • Located in Medchal-Malkajgiri district 43 km from Hyderabad, in Telangana.
  • It imparts training to the flying, technical and ground duty branches of IAF as well as officers of the Indian Navy & the Indian Coast Guard.
  • Period of training: 1 year.
  • Women cadets are being inducted since June 1993.
  • Motto: “Shram se Siddhi” “श्रम से सिद्धि
  • Mission of AFA: To inspire and transform outstanding young men and women into courageous, dynamic, intellectual and cultured young Air Warriors; motivated to lead one of the leading aerospace forces of the world in service to the nation.
  • The training at the Air Force Academy is designed to inculcate moral values, leadership qualities, sense of honour and duty, mental and physical prowess, a spirit of adventure and the will to win, in the Flight Cadets.

Also Read NDA Exam Date 2024 Out: UPSC NDA 2 Exam Schedule.

The Officers’ Training Academy (OTA)

  • Training establishment of the Indian Army that train officers for the Short Service Commission (SSC).
  • Course duration: 49 weeks course
  • OTA prepares graduates for all branches of the Army, except for the Army Medical Corps (AMC).
  • Motto of OTA: “Serve With Honour
  • The SSC Short Service commission officer’s tenure is 10+4 years (i.e. a compulsory 10 years of service and 4 years as extension).
  • After the completion of this tenure the officers can either opt for a Permanent commission (which will be given only based upon the performance seen by confidential reports, etc.) or can opt out of the Indian Army.
  • The ex NDA and CTW officers have a slight edge over their SSC counterparts in courses owing to the fact that they have trained three years more than the SSC entries.
  • You can convert from a short service commission to a permanent commission, however the vice versa is not possible.

Rakhi Sawant Suffering from Cancer? Big Revelation About Her Health.

Rakhi Sawant was admitted to the hospital on May 14 after experiencing chest and stomach pains.

Rakhi Sawant’s ex-husband, Ritesh Raj Singh, has disclosed that the actress and reality TV star is currently facing a serious health challenge. According to Singh, doctors have found a tumour in Sawant’s uterus and suspect it might be cancerous.

Rakhi Sawant, known for her vibrant presence on television and in Bollywood, was admitted to the hospital on May 14 after experiencing chest and stomach pains. According to the latest reports from News18, following a series of tests, the medical team discovered the tumour, leading to concerns about a possible cancer diagnosis.

Singh, who was introduced to the public as Sawant’s husband during her stint on the reality show Bigg Boss 15.

Also Read Taylor Swift And Billie Eilish Music Graces The Bridgerton Season 3, Release Time.

“She was admitted to the hospital last night after she complained of chest pain. Doctors are looking after her. They have discovered a tumour in her uterus. She had pain in her stomach too. Doctors have suspected that it might be cancer. Tests are being done. Doctors have proposed surgery but they want to check first if it is cancer or not.”: Ritesh told to News18

The medical team is currently conducting further tests to confirm the nature of the tumour and determine the appropriate course of action. Singh mentioned that while surgery has been proposed, the doctors are proceeding with caution until they have a definitive diagnosis.

The news has sent shockwaves through Sawant’s supporters, with many taking to social media to express their concern and support for the actress. Singh has called for prayers and positive thoughts for Sawant’s speedy recovery.

NDA Exam Pattern 2024: Marking Scheme, Question Distribution & Syllabus.

NDA Exam Pattern 2024: Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) prescribes NDA exam pattern along with the notification. NDA exam is conducted in pen and paper-based mode. All the questions asked in the exam are objective-type. NDA written exam comprises two papers-Maths and General Ability Test (GAT). NDA question paper carries a total of 270 questions. The written exam comprises 900 marks. Candidates need to secure 25 per cent in each paper of NDA exam. There are negative marking for wrong answers in the exam.

Candidates qualifying the written exam are called for SSB interview, conducted in two stages. The first stage comprises OIR and PP & DT tests and the second stage comprises psychology tests and the conference. The total marks allotted to SSB interview are 900. Candidates need to secure NDA cut off marks prescribed by UPSC for the written exam and SSB interview. We have provided the latest NDA exam pattern where candidates can get several important things about the NDA 2024, like the mode of exam, total marks allotted, the duration of the exam, types of questions asked, etc. NDA Exam Date 2024 Out: UPSC NDA 2 Exam Schedule.

NDA Exam Pattern 2024

NDA exam pattern comprises details such as mode of exam, total marks allotted, the duration of the exam, types of questions asked, etc. The exam pattern helps candidates prepare for the upcoming NDA  exam and secure a good rank. Understanding the NDA exam pattern is one of the first steps in ensuring success in the exam. By going through the exam pattern, candidates are able to understand the entire structure of the recruitment process. 

NDA Exam Pattern Overview

Candidates can check below a few important highlights related to the NDA exam pattern.

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOffline
Number of papersGAT and Mathematics
Duration of testGAT: 2 ½ hoursMathematics: 2 ½ hours
Exam timeGAT: 10 am to 12.30 pmMathematics: 2 pm to 4.30 pm
Number of questionsGAT: 150Mathematics: 120
Language of question paperEnglish and Hindi
Total marksWritten Exam: 900 (600 for GAT and 300 for Mathematics)SSB Interview: 900

NDA Exam Pattern 2024 for Written Exam

The exam paper of NDA written exam is divided into two parts, GAT and Mathematics. All the questions in the exam will be objective type. There will be a total of 150 questions in GAT while the Mathematics part will carry a total of 120 questions. Each section of the exam will be held for 2 ½ hours. The GAT section will be for 600 marks while the Mathematics section will carry 300 marks. The GAT section is divided into two parts. Part A comprises English while Part B consists of General Knowledge. The structure of the NDA exam pattern for the written exam is given below. CDS 2 2024: Application (Out), Notification, Eligibility, Pattern, Syllabus & More

PapersSubjectMaximum marksDuration
Paper 1Mathematics3002 ½
Paper 2GAT6002 ½
Total9005 hours

Candidates can check below the distribution of questions in the GAT paper.

SectionsMaximum marks
Part A – English200
Part B – General KnowledgePhysics100
Chemistry60
General Science40
History, Freedom Movement, etc.80
Geography80
Current Events40
Total600

NDA Marking Scheme 

There are NDA negative markings for incorrect answers, 1/3 of the marks allotted to each question are deducted for the incorrect answer. There is no deduction in marks for unanswered questions.

SubjectNDA Negative Marking
GAT-1.33
Maths-0.83

NDA Exam Duration

NDA exam duration is 5 hours, each paper is held for 2 ½ hours. NDA shift timings are given below.

ShiftNDA Exam Timing
Morning 10.00 am to 12:30 pm
Afternoon2.00 pm to 4:30 pm

Important Topics for NDA Written Exam

The questions in Mathematics as per NDA syllabus aim to test a candidate’s calculative skill. The standard of questions is basically of Class 10, 11, and 12 levels. For the Mathematics section, candidates can prepare the following topics:

  • Arithmetic
  • Mensuration
  • Algebra
  • Geometry
  • Trigonometry
  • Statistics, etc.
  • Matrices and Determinants

The GAT section of NDA question paper carries questions from English and General Knowledge. For the English section, candidates must focus on Grammar, Comprehension, and Reading Abilities. In General Knowledge, candidates should focus on Current Affairs, Physics, Chemistry, General Science, History, etc. UPSC CDS 2024: Application (Out), Alert, Time, Schedule, Qualifications, Courses, and Up-to-Date Information.

NDA Exam Pattern 2024 for SSB Interview

The SSB Interview is divided into two stages. Candidates qualifying the Stage 1 are called for the Stage 2 exam. Stage 1 of the SSB Interview comprises Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests and Picture Perception and Description Test (PP&DT). Stage 2 comprises Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests, and the Conference. This stage carries 900 marks. Candidates can check the pattern of the SSB Interview.

StagesTests
Stage 1 Screening TestVerbal and non-verbal tests.PPDT
Stage 2Psychological TestThematic Apperception Test (TAT)Word Association Test (WAT)Situation Reaction Test (SRT)Self Description Test (SD)
Group Testing Officers TestGDGPEPGTHGTIOTCommand TaskSnake race/Group Obstacle RaceIndividual lectureFGT
Personal Interview
Conference

NDA Qualifying Marks

To qualify NDA exam, candidates need to secure the overall and section-wise qualifying marks or cutoff marks in the exam. Candidates need to secure 25 per cent in each section. The overall qualifying marks of the written exam is calculated out of 900 marks. Candidates need to secure separate qualifying marks in the written exam and SSB interview.

NDA Syllabus

Candidates can check below the topics included in the syllabus:

Mathematics: Algebra, Calculus, Matrices and Determinants, Integral Calculus and Differential Equations, Trigonometry, Vector Algebra, Analytical Geometry Of Two and Three Dimension and Statistics and  Probability. 

GAT: The GAT syllabus of NDA is divided into two parts. Part A comprises questions from English, while Part B carries questions from General Knowledge. Questions in English part are asked from Grammar and Usage, Vocabulary, Comprehension, and Cohesion. Questions in General Knowledge are asked from Physics, Chemistry, Social Studies, General Science, Geography, and Current Events.

NDA Exam Date 2024 Out: UPSC NDA 2 Exam Schedule.

NDA Exam Date 2024: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) released NDA 2 notification 2024 on May 15, 2024. The application form is available from May 15 to June 4, 2024. NDA 2 2024 exam will be conducted on September 1, 2024.

NDA dates highlight the important events pertaining to the exam such as application form, notification, issue of admit card, declaration of result and answer key. 

NDA exam is conducted for admission to Army, Navy, and Air Force wings of National Defence Academy, Pune, and Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC), Ezhimala. The exam is conducted two times a year by Union Public Service Commission, the authority that regulates and supervises the exam. Candidates are recruited based on the written exam and SSB interview.

NDA Exam Dates 2025

UPSC released the dates for the NDA 2025 exam. The UPSC Calendar 2025 was used to notify the exam dates. The exam calendar indicates that the NDA 1 2025 exam will take place on April 13, 2025. The application form and NDA 1 2025 notification will be made available on December 11, 2024. The exam application deadline is December 31, 2024. The date of the NDA 2 2025 exam is September 14, 2025. On May 28, 2025, the NDA 2 2025 notification will be made public. The application will remain accessible till June 17, 2024. UPSC CDS 2024: Application (Out), Alert, Time, Schedule, Qualifications, Courses, and Up-to-Date Information.

NDA 2024 Dates

Take a look at the table below for the complete schedule of NDA 2024 exam.

DatesUpcoming Exam Dates
15 May ’24 – 04 Jun ’24NDA 2 Application Form 2024ONGOING
09 Sep ’24NDA 2 Exam Date 2024

DatesPast Exam Dates
15 May ’24NDA 2 Notification 2024
21 Apr ’24NDA 1 2024 exam
20 Dec ’23NDA 1 Notification 2024
20 Dec ’23 – 09 Jan ’24NDA 1 Application Form 2024
26 Sep ’23NDA 2 Result 2023
03 Sep ’23NDA 2 2023 exam
11 Aug ’23 – 03 Sep ’23NDA 2 Admit Card 2023
17 May ’23 – 06 Jun ’23NDA 2 2023 application form
01 May ’23NDA 1 result 2023
16 Apr ’23NDA 1 2023 exam
24 Mar ’23 – 16 Apr ’23NDA 1 Admit Card 2023
18 Jan ’23 – 24 Jan ’23Online correction & Withdrawal of NDA 1 2023 application form
21 Dec ’22NDA 1 notification 2023
21 Dec ’22 – 09 Jan ’23Offline fee payment for NDA 1 2023
21 Dec ’22 – 12 Jan ’23Online fee payment for NDA 1 2023
21 Dec ’22 – 12 Jan ’23NDA 1 2023 application form
19 Sep ’22NDA 2 result 2022
10 Aug ’22 – 04 Sep ’22NDA 2 admit card 2022
14 Jun ’22 – 20 Jun ’22NDA 2 application form withdrawal link
09 May ’22NDA 1 2022 result

Important Events of NDA 2024 Exam

The details regarding NDA events are given below:

NDA Application Form Date 2024

NDA 1 application form 2024 was released on December 20, 2023. The last date to apply for the exam was January 9, 2024. NDA 2 application form 2024 will be released on May 15, 2024. The last date to apply for the exam is June 4, 2024. NDA application form is released online on the official website. NDA application form can be filled in two parts: I and II. To submit the application form, candidates need to pay the requisite examination fees of INR 100. The examination fees can be paid both online and offline. Both male and female candidates can apply for NDA exam. The steps to fill the application form are given below: CDS 2 2024: Application (Out), Notification, Eligibility, Pattern, Syllabus & More

  • Visit the official website of UPSC
  • Register online by filling the Part I of application
  • Login with the registration number to fill Part II of the application form
  • Fill all the details in Part II application form
  • Submit the fees and take printout of the application form
UPSC CalendarNDA Preparation Tips
NDA notification NDA Books 
NDA recruitment NDA Salary
NDA VacanciesNDA exam centres
NDA Mock tests

Download CURRENT AFFAIRS Guide – Click Here

NDA Admit Card Date 2024

The admit card is released three weeks before the exam. NDA admit card is released online which candidates need to download either by entering registration number or roll number. The steps to download NDA admit card are given below:

  • Visit the official website of UPSC
  • In the ‘Whats New’ section candidates will find the ‘Admit Card’ link
  • Clicking the link, the login page opens
  • In the login page, candidates need to enter the required credentials
  • NDA admit card appears on the screen 
  • Download the admit card and take its printout

NDA Exam

NDA written exam comprises two papers, Mathematics and General Ability Test. The total marks of the written exam are 900. The SSB Interview carries 900 marks. Candidates qualifying the written exam are called for SSB Interview. NDA exam pattern for written exam is given below.

PapersSubjectMaximum marksDuration
Paper 1Mathematics3002 ½
Paper 2GAT6002 ½
Total9005 hours

NDA Answer Key Date 2024

The official answer key is released after the completion of the selection process. However, several coaching institutes release NDA answer key unofficially within a few hours after completion of the test. Candidates can use the answer key to compare the responses marked in the exam. The steps to download the answer key are given below:

  • Click the subject-wise links of answer keys provided on this page
  • The answer key page opens in PDF form
  • Download the answer key and save it for further reference  

NDA Result Date 2024

The result is announced online on the official website. NDA 1 result 2024 will be announced on May 2024. NDA 2 result 2024 will be announced in September 2024. NDA result is released in PDF format and carries the roll numbers of qualified candidates. Candidates who qualify the written exam are called for the SSB Interview. The steps to check NDA result are given below:

  • Visit the official website of UPSC
  • Click the result link-‘National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination result’ on the UPSC home page
  • NDA result opens on a new page in PDF form
  • Candidates can search their roll numbers and names in the result PDF through Ctrl+F
  • If their roll numbers and names are in the result PDF, this means candidates have qualified the exam
  • Download the result PDF and take its printout

NDA Exam Timing

NDA exam is conducted in two shifts-morning and afternoon shifts. The exam for the morning shift is conducted from 10 am to 12.30 pm whereas the exam for the afternoon shift is conducted from 2 pm to 4.30 pm. NDA shift timings are given below.

ShiftTiming
Morning 10.00 am to 12:30 pm
Afternoon2.00 pm to 4:30 pm

An important step in preparing for the UPSC NDA 2 Exam is the announcement of the NDA Exam Date for 2024. Candidates can carefully arrange their preparation tactics and get ready to demonstrate their abilities on the chosen date now that the schedule is released. An thrilling journey towards a career in the armed forces, where passion, perseverance, and dedication are the keys to success, is also marked by this news. In order to achieve their goals of serving the country with honour and valour, candidates are urged to make the most of this time by being disciplined and focused in their studies.

CDS 2 2024: Application (Out), Notification, Eligibility, Pattern, Syllabus & More

On May 15, 2024, the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) announced the UPSC CDS 2 2024 application and notification. Until June 4, 2024, candidates may apply to take the CDS 2 exam.

UPSC CDS 2024: On May 15, 2024, the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) made the application form available for the CDS 2 exam. Until June 4, 2024, candidates may apply online for the CDS exam. September 1, 2024 is the date of the UPSC CSD 2 exam.

The CDS 1 2024 test was previously administered by the UPSC on April 21, 2024. The post contains an exam analysis and a video of the students’ post-examination reactions for those who took the exam. The article has published the UPSC CDS 1 solution key.

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) administers the Combined Defence Services (CDS) Exam twice a year as a nationwide entrance exam. The Indian Armed Forces, which comprise the Indian Army, Indian Navy, and Indian Air Force, recruit officers through this exam. There are two components to the CDS exam: a written exam and an interview. The written exam consists of three papers: elementary mathematics, general knowledge, and English. It is administered offline. Each paper has a two-hour time limit and 100 possible points. The Services Selection Board (SSB) conducts the interview, which consists of a battery of tests meant to evaluate a candidate’s intelligence, leadership potential, and personality. UPSC CDS 2024: Application (Out), Alert, Time, Schedule, Qualifications, Courses, and Up-to-Date Information.

CDS 2024 Highlights 

Candidates selected through CDS join as commissioned officers. They undergo training in the respective defence academies. The table below provides some important exam highlights for CDS 2024.

CDS 2024 Exam Highlights
Exam nameCombined Defence Services Examination
Conducting instituteUnion Public Service Commission
Exam LevelNational
CDS syllabusMaths, English and General Ability Test (GAT)
CDS patternThe written exam conducted in pen-and-paper mode
No. of test citiesMore than 70
Exam frequencyTwice a year
Exam feesINR 200 (SC/ST/Women candidates/Sons of JCOs/NCOs/ORs are exempted from fee payment)
Eligibility Passed graduation or are appearing in the same
Exam purposeAdmission of candidates for Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy and Officers Training
Exam website upsc.gov.in

UPSC CDS Result 2024 

The UPSC released the UPSC CDS result in the form of a PDF that comprises the roll numbers of the qualified candidates. The candidates can download the CDS 1 result by following the steps given below:

  • Go to the official website 
  • Click on the CDS 1 result link 
  • The CDS 1 Result PDF link will appear on the screen 
  • Click on the CDS 1 result PDF link 
  • The UPSC CDS result PDF will appear on the screen 
  • Download the UPSC CDS result and save it for later use

Direct Link for CDS 1 Result PDF: Click Here 

UPSC CDS Expected Cut Off 2024

The candidates can check the expected cut off for the UPSC CDS 2024 exam in the table below. The CDS expected cut off 2024 is based on the difficulty level of the CDS exam and more. The candidates can check the UPSC CDS 1 written exam expected cut off below in the table. The expected cut-off for the CDS written exam has been given based on the difficulty level and other UPSC CDS cut-off deciding factors:

CDS Written Exam Expected Cut Off 2024
CDS 1 Expected Cutoff 2024CDS 1 Written ExamCDS 1 Final Cutoff 
CDS Cut off AFA135-142260-270
CDS Cut off IMA110-125245-255
CDS Cut off INA108-115230-244
CDS Cut off OTA (female)90-95158-165
CDS Cut off OTA (male)90-94160-170

UPSC CDS 1 2024 Exam Date

CDS 2024 dates have been announced by UPSC for the CDS written examination. The candidates must go through the CDS 1 2024 date and events tables to know the CDS 1 exam date and avoid the lack of information regarding the CDS 2024 exam. 

UPSC CDS 1 2024 EventsCDS 1 2024 Dates
CDS 1 2024 notificationDecember 20, 2023
CDS 1 2024 application form December 20, 2023
The last date to apply for the CDS 2024 application formJanuary 9, 2024
CDS 1 application form correction facility10-Jan-2024 to 16-Jan-2024
CDS 1 2024 application withdrawal datesWithdrawal Not Allowed 
CDS exam date 2024April 21, 2024

UPSC CDS 2 2024 Exam Date

UPSC CDS 2 2024 EventsCDS 2 2024 Dates
CDS 2 notification 2024 release dateMay 15, 2024
CDS 2 application form 2024 dateMay 15, 2024
The last date to apply for the CDS 2 application formJune 04, 2024
CDS 2 application form correction facility dateTo be notified
CDS 2 application withdrawal datesWithdrawal Not Allowed
CDS 2 admit card dateTo be notified
CDS 2 exam date 2024September 1, 2024

CDS 1 2024 Exam Analysis & Students Reaction

The candidates can check the exam analysis and students’ reaction video below:

CDS 1 Exam Analysis for GK and English

Shiksha team visited one of the exam centres in Delhi. Check the student reaction after the exam below:

  • Yash Tomar Said, ” The CDS exam for OTA was moderate in nature. However, the GK paper was moderate to difficult. The questions were asked from economics in General Awareness. The English paper was easy and dowable in nature.”
  • Adhirat Deshwal, “The exam pattern was a bit different in English from the previous year’s exam i. No questions were asked from modern history. The English paper was moderate to difficult and the question, synonyms, and antonyms were dominant in the English question Paper.” 

CDS 1 Maths Exam Analysis & Students’ Reaction 

UPSC CDS 1 Admit Card 2024

The UPSC released the CDS 1 admit card on April 12, 2024. The candidates will be able to download their CDS 1 hall ticket by following the steps given below:

  • Go to the official website-upsc.gov.in 
  • Click on the UPSC CDS 1 2024 Admit Card link
  • The login page will appear on the screen 
  • Fill out the details required- application/registration number and date of birth 
  • Fill out the captcha available on the screen 
  • Click on the submit button
  • The UPSC CDS 1 admit card will appear on the screen 
  • Download the CDS 1 admit card and save it for later use

CDS 2024 Admit Card Download Link 

The candidates who will successfully submit their application form for the CDS 2024 exam will be able to download the CDS 2024 admit card. The direct link to download the CDS admit card 2024 is below in the article as soon as it is released on the official website. The direct link will redirect the candidates to the login page where the candidates can download the CDS admit card using their login credentials. 

UPSC CDS Age Limit 2024

  • CDS 2 2024 age limit for Indian Military Academy (IMA) is that unmarried male candidates born not earlier than January 2, 2000, and not later than January 1, 2005, are eligible to apply
  • CDS 2 2024 age limit for Indian Naval Academy (IMA) is that unmarried male candidates born not earlier than January 2, 2000, and not later than January 1, 2005, are eligible to apply
  • Candidates applying for Air Force Academy should be between 20 to 24 years old as of January 1, 2024. They must have been born not earlier than January 2, 2000, and not later than January 1, 2004For Officers’ Training Academy (SSC Course for men), unmarried male candidates born not earlier than January 2, 1999, and not later than January 1, 2005, are eligible to apply
  • For Officers’ Training Academy (SSC Women Non-Technical Course), candidates should be unmarried and born not earlier than January 2, 1999, and not later than January 1, 2005

UPSC CDS Qualification

  • For IMA and Officers’ Training Academy, the required educational qualification is Graduation in any discipline from a recognised university
  • For Indian Naval Academy, candidates must have a degree in Engineering from a recognised university
  • For Air Force Academy, candidates must have a degree in Engineering from a recognised university. They must have studied Physics and Mathematics in Class 12

UPSC CDS Physical Standards 2024

The candidates who want to appear for the CDS exam must go through the CDS physical standards before applying for the CDS exam so that they can check that they are eligible to qualify for the eligibility criteria 

CDS 2024 Male Height and Weight

The height and weight standards for the army and navy (male) have been given below for the CDS exam aspiring candidates. The candidates can refer to the table for the CDS age-wise weight and height below:

Height/Age18 years 20 years 22 years 24 years 
152 44&*nbsp;46 47 48 
155 46 48&**nbsp;49 50 
157 47 49 50 51 
160 48 50 51 52 
162 50 52 51 54 
165 52 53 55 56 
168 53 55 57 58 
170 55 57 58 59 
173 57 59 60 61 
175 59 61 62 62 
178 61 62 63 64 
180 63 64 65 66 
183 65 67 67 68 
185 67 69 70 71 
188 70 71 72 74 
190 72 73 74 76 
193 74 76 77 78 
195 77 78 79 81 

CDS 2024 Female Height and Weight

The height and weight standards for the army and navy (female) have been given below for the CDS exam aspiring candidates. The candidates can refer to the table for the CDS age-wise weight and height below:

 Height/Age 20 years 25 years 30 years 
148  39 41 43  
150  40  42  43.5  
153 42  43.5  45 
155 43   44 46 
158 45   46 48 
160 46   47 49 
163 47   49 51 
165 49   51 53 
168 50   52 54

CDS Eyesight 2024

Candidates who want to appear in CDS 2024 must know about visual standards so that they can verify that they are eligible to appear for the CDS exam or not. The UPSC has divided visual standards into three parts – IMA & OTA, Naval Candidates, and Air Force. The details of the visual standards have been given below: 

CDS 2024 Eyesight : IMA and OTA 

  • Uncorrected vision (max allowed) – 6/60 &6/60  
  • BCVA – Right 6/6 & Left 6/6 
  • Myopia –
  • Hypermetropia –
  • Lasik/equivalent surgery – Permitted 
  • Colour perception: CP II 

CDS 2024 Eyesight: Navy

  • Uncorrected without glasses: 6/12, 6/12  
  • Corrected with glasses: 6/6, 6/6  
  • Myopia Limit: -1.5D 
  • Hypermetropia Limit: +1.5D  
  • Binocular Vision: III  
  • Limits of Colour Perception: I 

CDS 2024 Eyesight: Air Force 

Candidates who wear spectacles regularly are not eligible for India Air Force. The visual standards for the Air Force have been given below: 

  • Hypermetropia Colour Vision CP-1  
  • Hypermetropia: +2.0 d Sph  
  • Manifest Myopia: Nil  
  • Retinoscopic Myopia- 0.5 in any meridian  
  • Astigmatism : +0.75 D Cyl (with + 2.0 D- Max) 

Maddox Rod Test at 33 cms: 

  • Exo-16 prism D  
  • Eso-6 prism D  
  • Hyper-1 prism D 
  • Hypo-1 prism D 

 at 6 meters: 

  • Exo-6 prism D 
  • Eso-6 prism D 
  • Hyper-1 prism D 
  • Hypo-1prism D  

CDS Vacancy 2024

The final UPSC CDS 2024 vacancy will be announced simultaneously with the release of the official notification on upsc.gov.in. The Union Public Service would release UPSC CDS vacancies in 2024 separately for both sessions. CDS 2024 openings for the Indian Military Academy (IMA), Indian Naval Academy (INA), Air Force Academy (AFA), and Officers’ Training Academy (OTA) Men & Women will be available here for each session.

CDS Application Form 2024

UPSC released the CDS application along with the notification on the official website on December 20, 2023. The candidates can apply for the CDS exam till January 9, 2024 by following the steps that have been provided in the article below. 

How to register for the CDS application form? 

The steps to fill out the application form are given below:

  • Go to the official website for application-  upsconline.nic.in
  • Log in to your registered account or register for the OTR (the steps to register for UPSC OTR has been given below in the article)
  • Click on the CDS 2 exam link
  • Fill out the details asked
  • Upload the photograph, signature, and Photo Identity card
  • Make the application fee for the CDS 2 exam 
  • Choose the CDS 2 exam centre
  • Finally, submit the application form 
  • A confirmation message will be sent to the candidate’s registered mobile number and email id 

Direct Link to Apply for the CDS 1 2024 exam: Closed

CDS Exam Pattern 2024

Candidates can check the CDS 2024 exam pattern in the table below:

ParametersDetails
Mode of examOffline
Number of sectionsIndian Military Academy (IMA), Indian Naval Academy (INA) and Air Force Academy (AFA)-ThreeOfficers’ Training Academy (OTA)-Two
Total marks of the testIMA, INA, and AFA-300OTA-200
Nature of questionsObjective type
Language of question paperHindi and English
Duration of the testTwo hours for each section of the test

CDS Negative Marking Scheme

  • For the incorrect answer, 1/3 mark is deducted
  • Candidates marking more than one option are treated as incorrect 
  • If a question is left unanswered, there will be no negative marking 

Section Wise Marking Scheme

The section-wise marking scheme of the CDS exam has been given below for the candidates. The section-wise marking scheme will help the aspirants to understand the complex structure of the marking scheme: 

Specifications English GK Mathematics 
Maximum marks100100100
Marks for the correct answer+1 mark for each correct option+1 mark for each correct option+1 mark for each correct option
Negative marking-0.33 marks for each wrong answer-0.33 marks for each wrong answer-0.33 marks for each wrong answer

CDS Exam Pattern 2024 for SSB Interview

The candidates who will join the Indian defence as commissioned officers will be promoted according to the norms and time period of the service. The candidates can check the rank-wise post list below:

  • Captain – Two years of commissioned service
  • Major – Six years of commissioned service
  • Lieutenant Colonel – Thirteen years of commissioned service
  • Colonel – Fifteen years of commissioned service
  • Colonel (TS) – Twenty-six years of commissioned service
  • Major General – Twenty-five years of commissioned service
  • Brigadier – Twenty-three years of commissioned service
  • Lieutenant General – Twenty-eight years of commissioned service
  • General – No restrictions
  • Lieutenant – Promotion only after completion of training

CDS 2024 Career Growth in INA & IMA

Candidates who want to join the Indian Naval Academy or Indian Military Academy must check their CDS 2024 career growth in the table below:

RanksTime Duration
LieutenantAfter completing training
Captain2 years of Commissioned Service
Major6 years of Commissioned Service
Lieutenant Colonel13 years of Commissioned Service
Colonel (TS)26 years of Commissioned Service
Colonel15 years of Commissioned Service
Brigadier23 years of Commissioned Service
Major General25 years of Commissioned Service
Lieutenant General28 years of Commissioned Service
GeneralNo restrictions

CDS 2024 Career Growth in AFA

The candidates who are willing to join the Air Force Academy can check the career growth in the AFA in the table below:

CDS Rank – AFATime Duration
Flying OfficerOn Commission
Flight Lieutenant2 Years of commissioned service
Squadron Leader6 years of commissioned service
Wing Commander13 years of commissioned service
Group Captain26 years of commissioned service
Air Commodore
Air Vice Marshal
Air Chief Marshal HAG Scale
Air Chief Marshal Apex Scale
Air Chief Marshal

CDS 2024 Exam Centres

The candidates can check the exam cities in which the CDS 2024 exam will be conducted in the table below:

StateExamination Centre
TripuraAgartala
GujaratAhmedabad
MizoramAizawl
Uttar PradeshAllahabad
KarnatakaBengaluru
Uttar PradeshBareilly
Madhya PradeshBhopal
PunjabChandigarh
Tamil NaduChennai
Tamil NaduCuttack
UttarakhandDehradun
DelhiDelhi
KarnatakaDharwad
AssamDispur
SikkimGangtok
Andhra PradeshHyderabad
ManipurImphal
Arunachal PradeshItanagar
RajasthanJaipur
Jammu and KashmirJammu
AssamJorhat
KeralaKochi
NagalandKohima
West BengalKolkata
Uttar PradeshLucknow
Tamil NaduMadurai
MaharashtraMumbai
MaharashtraNagpur
GoaPanaji
BiharPatna
Andaman and NicobarPort Blair
ChhattisgarhRaipur
JharkhandRanchi
OdishaSambalpur
MeghalayaShillong
Himachal PradeshShimla
Jammu and KashmirSrinagar
KeralaThiruvananthapuram
Arunachal PradeshTirupati
RajasthanUdaipur
Arunachal PradeshVisakhapatnam

Comparison Between Similar Defence Exams

The candidates preparing for the Defence exams can check the similar exams to CDS.  The comparison between CDS (Combined Defense Services), AFCAT (Air Force Common Admission Test), and NDA (National Defense Academy) is given below in the table:

CriteriaCDSAFCATNDA
Full FormCombined Defense ServicesAir Force Common Admission TestNational Defense Academy
Conducting AuthorityUnion Public Service Commission (UPSC)Indian Air ForceUPSC (Written Exam) and Services Selection Board (SSB) for Interviews
LevelGraduate LevelGraduate Level10+2 (12th Grade) Level
BranchesArmy, Navy, Air ForceIndian Air ForceArmy, Navy, Air Force
Age Limit19-25 years20-26 years16.5-19.5 years (10+2 level)
EligibilityGraduation in any disciplineGraduation in any discipline10+2 (12th Grade) pass
Exam PatternWritten Exam (English, GK, Maths) + SSB InterviewWritten Exam (Verbal Ability, Numerical Ability, Reasoning, GK) + EKT (for technical branches) + SSB InterviewWritten Exam (Maths, General Ability) + SSB Interview
Selection ProcessWritten Exam, SSB Interview, and Medical ExaminationWritten Exam, EKT (for technical branches), SSB Interview, and Medical ExaminationWritten Exam, SSB Interview, and Medical Examination
Training AcademyIndian Military Academy (IMA), Indian Naval Academy (INA), Air Force Academy (AFA), Officers’ Training Academy (OTA)Air Force Academy (AFA)National Defense Academy (NDA)
Commission OfferedPermanent Commission (PC) for men and Short Service Commission (SSC) for womenShort Service Commission (SSC)Permanent Commission (PC)

CDS 2 202

CDS 2 2024 FAQs

4 FAQs

Q1. When will the CDS1 2024 admit card be released?

The CDS 1 admit card will be released by the end of March 2024. The candidates will be able to download the CDS admit card by following the steps given below:

  • Go to the official website 
  • Click on the CDS 1 admit card link 
  • The UPSC CDS login page will appear on the screen
  • Fill out the login credentials 
  • Fill out the captcha available on screen
  • Click on the submit button 
  • The CDS 1 admit card will appear on the screen 
  • Download the CDS admit card and save it for later use

Q2: What is the CDS 1 exam date?

The UPSC CDS 1 exam will be conducted on April 21, 2024. The exam will be conducted for AFA (Air Force Academy), IMA (Indian Military Academy), INA (Indian Naval Academy), OTA (Officers’ Training Academy) in a single day. However, the OTA exam will be conducted for for 4 hours whereas, the AFA, IMA, and INA for 6 hours. 

Q3: What is the CDS exam shift timing?

The shift timing for the CDS exam are given below in the table:

PaperExam Timings 
English 9.00 am to 11.00 am
GK 12.00 pm to 2.00 pm
Elementary Mathematics3.00 pm to 5.00 pm

Taylor Swift And Billie Eilish Music Graces The Bridgerton Season 3, Release Time.

Bridgerton season 3 part 1 will be released on Netflix on May 16th. Here is what time it will be released in your country, including the US, UK, Brazil, India, Australia and more.

Bridgerton season 3 part 1 (the first four episodes!) will be released on Netflix worldwide on May 16th at midnight PT. This means that all of the episodes will become available to stream at the corresponding time in your country. Everyone will be able to experience Polin season at the same time!

What time does Bridgerton season 3 part 1 come out on Netflix?

Penelope and Colin's romance takes centre stage in Bridgerton season 3

Bridgerton season 3 part 1 release times: Here’s when it comes out in your country

Bridgerton season 3 part 1 will be released on Thursday May 16th at 12AM Pacific Time (PT). The exact time it’s released in your country will depend on where you live in the world and what time zone you live in.

For viewers in the U.K., the episodes will become available to stream on Netflix at 8AM (BST).

Here are the Bridgerton season 3 part 1 release times for a handful of major time zones and countries:

  • United States (PDT) – 12:00 AM
  • United States (EDT) – 03:00 AM
  • Canada – 3:00 AM (Toronto), 12:00 AM (Vancouver)
  • Brazil (Rio De Janiero) – 4:00 AM
  • United Kingdom (GMT) – 8:00 AM
  • Europe (Central European Time) – 9:00 AM
  • South Africa (Cape Town, Central Africa Time) – 9:00 AM
  • India (New Delhi) – 12:30 PM
  • Indonesia (Jakarta) – 2:00 PM
  • Philippines (Manila) – 3:00 PM
  • Hong Kong – 3:00 PM
  • Singapore – 3:00 PM
  • Australia – 3:00 PM (Perth), 5:00 PM (Sydney)
  • Japan (Tokyo) – 4:00 PM
  • New Zealand (Auckland) – 7:00 PM

How many episodes are there? When does Bridgerton season 3 part 2 come out?

When Bridgerton season 3 drops on May 16th, there will only be four episodes available to stream. But don’t panic, that’s not the end of the season! The final four episodes will follow a few weeks later. Part 2 (which consists of episodes 5, 6, 7 and 8) will drop on Netflix on Thursday June 13th. And it’ll be the same time as above so mark your calendars and set your alarms to make sure you’re among the first viewers to find out how Colin and Penelope’s romance progresses. Mirror scene, anyone?

What happens in Bridgerton season 3?

Well, first of all, in case you haven’t noticed, season 3 will focus on Colin Bridgerton and Penelope Featherington who, after years of being friends, finally inch closer and closer to a full blown, very spicy romance of their own.

The official synopsis of teases that Penelope has decided that it’s time to take a husband, after giving up on her long-held crush on Colin after hearing his negative words about her. However, Pen’s lack of confidence means she struggles to make a match.

Colin has returned from his summer travels, looking every inch the leading man, but is “disheartened” when he realises Pen is now giving him the cold shoulder.

“Eager to win back her friendship, Colin offers to mentor Penelope in the ways of confidence to help her find a husband this season. But when his lessons start working a little too well, Colin must grapple with whether his feelings for Penelope are truly just friendly,” the synopsis reads.

Elsewhere, teaser clips have hinted that Francesca’s debut will play a big part in season 3, Benedict finds himself with a new woman, and Anthony and Kate are still enjoying their honeymoon phase. Oh, and Eloise and Penelope’s friendship is still in the pits.

As for what else happens? We’ll have to tune in on May 16th to find out!

Also Read Gift Nifty, Global Markets Hint Gap-Up Open on May 16; FIIs Trade in Focus.

Check out the soundtrack for the first four Episodes

EpisodeSong TitleArtist
1“abcdefu”Gayle (performed by Vitula)
2“Dynamite”Vitamin String Quartet
“Jealous”Shimmer
3“Cheap Thrills”Vitamin String Quartet
“Happier Than Ever”Vitamin String Quartet
4“Snow on the Beach”Atwood Quartet
“Give Me Everything”Archer Marsh

Bridgerton Season 3 premieres on Netflix on May 16. Watch the official trailer below.

Gift Nifty, Global Markets Hint Gap-Up Open on May 16; FIIs Trade in Focus.

Pre-market stock update on Thursday, May 16:With an emphasis on FII inflows after US rates dropped to 5-week lows, equity markets in India are anticipated to follow strong foreign signals and trade on a positive note today.
Gift Nifty futures opened at 22,380 at 7:00 AM, indicating a probable 70-point gap-up on the Nifty 50 index.

Global Markets

The US market closed at all-time highs overnight as statistics revealed that US consumer prices increased less than anticipated in April, indicating that inflation has started to decline in the second quarter. According to the data, there could be many interest rate reductions in 2024.
In April, the US consumer price index (CPI) increased by 0.3%, less than the 0.4% increase that was anticipated. The figure indicates a slowdown in domestic demand, which US central bank officials are probably happy to hear as they work to facilitate a “soft-landing” for the economy.

Following which, all three indices closed at new life-time highs. Dow Jones jumped 0.9 per cent. The S&P 500 rose 1.2 per cent, and Nasdaq soared 1.4 per cent.

The US 10-year bond yield eased to 4.32 per cent, its lowest level in the last five weeks. Among commodities, Gold futures jumped back to $2,400 levels, while Brent Crude Oil hovered around $83 per barrel.

Mirroring the cues from the US peers, the Australian and Malaysian stock benchmark indices surged over 1 per cent each this morning. Taiwan too was up 0.8 per cent. Japan’s Nikkei held a 0.6 per cent gain even as data showed that its economy shrank more than expected in Q12024 hit by slowdown in consumer spending and sticky inflation.

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Domestic Cues

Thursday’s FII flows will be closely watched after a decline in US yields. In the derivatives market, the FIIs are said to have built big short positions and have been active sellers thus far in May. On Wednesday, the DIIs net bought shares worth Rs 3,788 crore, while the FIIs net sold equities worth Rs 2,833 crore.

The Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) continued to aggressively build short positions in Index futures. The long short ratio on 14th May stood at 30.46 per cent, said Ashwin Ramani, Derivatives & Technical Analyst of SAMCO Securities in a note.

Foreign investors are the most pessimistic in over a decade on Indian stocks amid speculation over Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s party winning fewer seats in the ongoing national elections than previously estimated.

Net short positions – measured as the difference between the number of index futures contracts on which global funds are long to those on which they hold a short position – surged to 213,224 contracts, data compiled by Bloomberg showed. The gap is the widest since data going back to 2012. Among individual stocks, shares of oil & gas producers & explorers will be in focus on Thursday after the government, in its bi-weekly review, cut the windfall tax on petroleum crude to Rs 5,700 per metric tonne from Rs 8,400. The tax remained unchanged at zero for diesel and aviation turbine fuel.

That apart, shares of Biocon, Container Corporation of India, Crompton Greaves Consumer Electricals, DCW, eClerx Services, Endurance Technologies, Gail India, Hindustan Aeronautics (HAL), Vodafone Idea, Indian Hume Pipe, Indoco Remedies, JK Paper, Krishna Institute of Medical Sciences (KIMS), Kopran, Mahindra & Mahindra (M&M), Info Edge (Naukri), Prism Johnson, Sanghvi Movers, Solar Industries, Texmaco Rail, V-Guard and Wonderala Holidays are likely to be on investors radar ahead of Q4 results today.

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Trading strategy for Thursday, May 16 – Should you be a buyer or seller today? Here’s what market experts recommend:

Ashwin Ramani of SAMCO Securities states that the support level of 22,200 which earlier acted as a strong support for Nifty, is acting as resistance now. The Nifty has failed to aggressively close above the channel support level convincingly in the last two trading sessions. The call writers (Bears) have sizeable positions at the 22,200 Strike and the option activity at this strike will provide cues about Nifty’s Intraday direction ahead of the weekly expiry today.

Om Mehra, Technical Analyst of SAMCO Securities cautions, that the Nifty is forming an inverted head and shoulder pattern on the hourly chart, with the neckline remaining around 22,320; if crossed, expect a potential rally towards the 22,450-22,500 range.

On the downside, immediate support for the Nifty is seen at the 22,080 level. The Relative Strength Index (RSI) continues to hover below the 50 mark, signalling short-term weakness in the market, the analyst added.

Hrishikesh Yedve, AVP Technical and Derivatives Research at Asit C. Mehta Investment Interrmediates also highlights that technically, on the daily scale, the Nifty has encountered resistance near the 22,300 levels, where the 21-Days exponential moving average (21-DEMA) is placed. As long as the Nifty remains below the 22,300 levels, we expect the index to consolidate in the range of 22,000-22,300. 

Despite the fall on Wednesday, the Bank Nifty is still respecting a bullish engulfing candle, indicating strength. As long as the Bank Nifty remains above 46,983, the bullish momentum will continue. On the upside, the 21-DEMA is placed near 48,060, which will serve as the first hurdle for the index, followed by 48,500, Hrishikesh said in his note.

Sentiment remains subdued as long as it stays below 22,250. A decisive move beyond this level could potentially propel Gift Nifty towards 22,600 and beyond. Conversely, a failure to sustain above 22,200 might invite selling pressure in the market, said Rupak De, Senior Technical Analyst at LKP Securities.

Maldives Questions Indian Aircraft Pilots..

The Maldives High Commission of India declared in a statement that Indian aviation platforms have always operated in the Maldives in accordance with “agreed procedures and with due authorisation.”

India on Tuesday dismissed the claim made by Maldivian Defence Minister Ghassan Maumoon, alleging that Indian military helicopter pilots stationed in the Maldives carried out an unauthorised operation in 2019.

In a statement, the High Commission of India in the Maldives asserted that Indian aviation platforms in the Maldives have always operated according to the “agreed procedures and with due authorisation.”

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The clarification came days after India completed the withdrawal of 76 military personnel from the Maldives following a demand by President Mohamed Muizzu. Relations between India and Maldives deteriorated since Muizzu, a pro-China leader, came to power in November last year.

Muizzu had set May 10 as the deadline for the withdrawal of the Indian military troops from his country.

Addressing a press conference here on Saturday, Defence Minister Ghassan said he knew of one of the aviation platforms undertaking an unauthorised sortie.

He narrated an incident where one of the two helicopters operated by Indian military personnel in the Maldives landed in Thimarafushi, allegedly without permission – a case, which he said, was reviewed by the Parliament’s Committee on National Security Services (241 Committee), when he was a lawmaker.

However, the Indian mission dismissed the allegation.

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“Indian aviation platforms in the Maldives have always operated as per agreed procedures and with due authorisation from the Maldives National Defence Force (MNDF),” the High Commission of India said.

Referring to the remarks by the Maldivian Defence Minister, the High Commission said the particular incident which saw an emergency landing at Thimarafushi on October 9, 2019, was “necessitated due to an unforeseen exigency.” “The specific sortie on 09 October 2019 referred to at the press conference was also undertaken with the approval of MNDF.

The emergency landing at Thimarafushi was necessitated due to an unforeseen exigency, which was carried out after taking necessary on-ground approvals from the Air Traffic Control (ATC) to ensure the safety and security of the platform and crew,” the High Commission asserted.

According to local media reports, on May 11, the MNDF revealed that the Indian military personnel who were previously operating the helicopters gifted to the Maldives by the Indian government had made a trip on the helicopter without notifying the Maldivian military during the administration of former President Ibrahim Mohamed Solih.

Incidentally, at the same press conference, Defence Minister Ghassan also confessed that the Maldives military still does not have pilots capable of operating three aircraft donated by India.

The Indian military personnel were stationed in the Maldives to operate two helicopters and a Dornier aircraft gifted by India. The helicopters and the aircraft were used primarily for medical evacuations.

The last batch of Indian military personnel were repatriated by Friday, as per the May 10 deadline set following an agreement between the two countries in February in New Delhi.

The Maldives is India’s key maritime neighbour in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR) and occupies a special place in its initiatives like ‘SAGAR’ (Security and Growth for All in the Region) and the ‘Neighbourhood First Policy’ of the Indian government.

TBO Tek Share Price Makes a Bumper Debut, Stock Opens with 55% Premium at ₹1,426 Piece on NSE.

TBO Tek share price debuts impressively, with NSE opening at ₹1,426 per share and BSE at ₹1,380, significantly higher than the issue price of ₹920. The IPO was subscribed 86.70 times, with QIBs oversubscribed at 125.51 times, NIIs at 50.60 times, and RIIs at 25.74 times.

TBO Tek share price made a stellar debut on the bourses today. On NSE, TBO Tek share price opened at Rs1,426 per share, 55% higher than the issue price of ₹920. On BSE, TBO Tek share price today opened at ₹1,380 apiece, up 50% than the issue price.

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Market experts anticipated TBO Tek share price to open in the range of ₹1,360 to ₹1,400 per share.

On Friday, the final day of subscriptions, TBO Tek’s initial public offering was subscribed 86.70 times, according to NSE data. The segment allocated for qualified institutional buyers (QIBs) received 125.51 times subscriptions, but the non-institutional investor group received 50.60 times as many subscribers. The section for retail individual investors (RIIs) received 25.74 times subscriptions.

The price band for each equity share in the offering, which has a face value of Re 1, has been set between ₹875 and ₹920. 16 equity shares make up each lot in the IPO, and more lots of 16 equity shares will be issued in the future. The IPO set aside 75% of the net offer for QIBs, 15% for NIIs, and 10% for retail investors. Employees have reserved equity shares worth up to ₹3 crore.

The company streamlines the travel industry for suppliers including lodging facilities, airlines, rental cars, transfers, cruise lines, insurance, and rail companies, among others. Travel agencies and independent travel advisers are examples of retail clients; corporate clients include tour operators, travel management organisations, online travel agencies, super apps, and loyalty apps. The seamless communication made possible by the two-sided technology platform benefits each of these parties equally.

TBO Tek ipo

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TBO Tek IPO details

TBO Tek IPO, which is worth ₹1,550.81 crore, comprises a fresh issue of ₹400 crore, and an offer-for-sale (OFS) of up to 12,508,797 equity shares of face value of Re 1 each by the promoters and other investors.

52.12 lakh shares will be offered through OFS, according to announcements made by the company’s promoters, Manish Dhingra, LAP Travel, and Gaurav Bhatnagar. The company’s two investors, Augusta TBO and TBO Korea, who own respective holdings of 19.53 percent and 11.06 percent, will sell 72.96 lakh shares.

According to the Red Herring Prospectus for TBO Tek’s IPO, corporate promoters own 51.26 percent of this online travel distributor, while public shareholders own 46.43 percent of the company.

Augusta TBO is the company’s biggest public investor, holding 19.53% of the shares. General Atlantic owns 15,635,994 company shares, or 15% of the company’s total paid-up capital.

TBO Korea owns 11,523,854 shares, or 11.06 percent of the company overall. Promoters and public shareholders own 98.54 percent of the company; the TBO ESOP Trust, an entity that is neither a promoter nor a public shareholder, owns the remaining 2.31%.

The company intends to use the offering’s net proceeds to finance the following objectives: expanding the network of buyers and suppliers; increasing the platform’s value by adding new business categories; utilizing acquired data to offer our suppliers and buyers customized travel solutions; and pursuing inorganic development through wise acquisitions and the creation of synergies with our current platform.

Axis Capital Limited, Jefferies India Private Limited, Goldman Sachs (India) Securities Private Limited, and Jm Financial Limited are the book running lead managers of the TBO Tek IPO. Kfin Technologies Limited is the issue registrar.

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TBO Tek IPO GMP today

TBO Tek IPO grey market premium is +350. This indicates TBO Tek share price were trading at a premium of ₹350 in the grey market, according to investorgain.com.

The expected listing price for the TBO Tek IPO is ₹1,270 per share, which is 38.04% greater than the IPO price of ₹920, given the upper end of the IPO price band and the existing premium on the grey market.

Based on the last 16 sessions of grey market activity, the IPO GMP for today indicates an increasing trajectory and a strong listing. The experts at investorgain.com state that the GMP ranges from ₹0 to ₹540.

‘Grey market premium’ indicates investors’ readiness to pay more than the issue price.

2 Suspected Bangladeshi Terrorists Arrested From Guwahati Railway Station.

Guwahati: Two suspected terrorists from Bangladesh, linked to the Al Qaeda terror group, were arrested in Guwahati for illegally entering India, police said on Monday.

Acting on a tip-off, the police arrested the two Bangladeshis from Guwahati railway station yesterday. They were in the city to radicalise the youth, said police.

The two suspected terrorists were identified as Bahar Mia, 30, from Brahmanbari district and Rasel Mia, 40, from Netrokona district of Bangladesh. They belonged to the Ansarullah Bangla Team (ABT), linked to the banned Al Qaeda in the Indian Subcontinent (AQIS) terror group, police said.

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“These cadres are Bangladesh nationals and were illegally staying in India without a passport and obtained Indian documents to spread terror network in Assam,” they said in a statement.

Aadhaar and PAN cards, suspected to be fake, were seized from them, the police said.

Last year, several modules of the ABT were busted in Assam.