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Kapil Sibal calls Amit Shah’s Bail Statement to Kejriwal “Objectionable.”

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Rajya Sabha MP Kapil Sibal on Thursday hit out at Home Minister Amit Shah over his reported “special treatment” remarks on the interim bail to Delhi Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal, saying it was an “objectionable statement” that questioned the intention of the Supreme Court judges.

Sibal’s remarks came after Shah while referring to the interim bail granted by the Supreme Court to Kejriwal, reportedly said many in the country believed he was given special treatment.

Also Read Mamata Banerjee, “PART OF INDIA” “You should not trust,” Adhir Ranjan says.

The Supreme Court on Thursday steered clear of the political talk about it has made an exception for Kejriwal in granting him interim bail for campaigning in the Lok Sabha polls but said: “critical analysis of the judgment is welcome”.

Addressing a press conference in the national capital, Sibal said, “Shah has made an objectionable statement and questioned the intention of the Supreme Court judges.”
Shah has stated very cleverly that many people are saying the Supreme Court’s decision to grant interim bail to Kejriwal in the excise policy case is akin to him getting special treatment, he added.

“He (Shah) has said ‘people are saying’. If people are saying and you don’t believe in it, then why say it? If people say and you believe it, then only you have made the statement,” said Sibal, who is also a senior advocate.

Sibal said it is important to spell out the laws in light of the statement.

“If someone is convicted but gets a stay from the court, he or she can file a nomination and get elected. If there is a charge sheet against anyone, a person can campaign and also file a nomination, like Brij Bhushan Sharan Singh is doing,” the Rajya Sabha MP said.

“One who just has allegations against him cannot campaign, what kind of a statement is this?” Sibal said, hitting out at Shah.

He probably does not know the law, otherwise he would not have made the statement, Sibal said.

Also Read “Desh mein koi maai ka laal,” Attacks the INDIA Party for Spreading False Information Regarding CAA.

Slamming Shah, Sibal said, “He (Shah) says ‘if we win 400 seats, we will take back PoK’. What if you don’t get that many seats, won’t you take back PoK? We want you to take it back. Firstly, you should take back those 4,000 kilometers that China has taken away…”
Asked about the alleged assault on AAP MP Swati Maliwal at Kejriwal’s residence, Sibal said, “Why is he (Shah) worried about this (Maliwal assault case)? It’s an internal matter of AAP. You think about Prajwal (Revanna), why don’t you give statements on that? That is the internal matter of JD(S), you are silent there and the prime minister is also silent.

Mamata Banerjee, “PART OF INDIA” “You should not trust,” Adhir Ranjan says.

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On Wednesday Mamata Banerjee – who had seemed to put her membership of the INDIA bloc on hold – said she would provide “outside support” in the event the group won the 2024 Lok Sabha election.

The Congress’ Bengal boss, Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury, on Thursday, weighed in on the ‘is she, isn’t she’ll debate over Mamata Banerjee’s membership of the INDIA bloc, shortly before the Chief Minister said she remains a key part of the opposition grouping, which she called her “brainchild”.

Also Read “Desh mein koi maai ka laal,” Attacks the INDIA Party for Spreading False Information Regarding CAA.

On Ms Banerjee’s “… will provide outside support (if the group wins the election)” comment Wednesday, Mr Chowdhury declared, “I don’t trust her… she left the alliance. She can also go towards the BJP.”

“What she will do from outside (the alliance) or inside… I don’t know. That you have to ask her,” the Congress leader told reporters, “But I don’t trust her. She left the alliance… she could even run to BJP.”

Mr. Chowdhury – there is little love lost between him and Ms. Banerjee, a fact underlined by the latter yesterday explicitly stating “… INDIA alliance doesn’t count Bengal Congress…” – also said, “Whatever complaints she has (about the bloc) she should have raised earlier when it was created.”

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Mr Chowdhury further pointed out the apparent U-turn came after polling for nearly 70 per cent of all Lok Sabha seats, with the opposition bloc claiming big advances in its bid to oust the ruling BJP.

“They (referring to the BJP) were talking about destroying Congress and that Congress would not get 40 seats… but now (what) she is saying means Congress and INDIA are coming to power,” he said, appearing to suggest Ms Banerjee’s about-face followed a realisation the BJP will likely be defeated.

A day earlier Ms Banerjee – who had put her membership of the bloc on hold after public spats over seat-sharing deals – declared she would provide “outside support” in the event of an election win.

“We will give leadership to INDIA and help… from outside. We will form a Mamata Banerjee government so our Bengal mothers and sisters… and those who work in 100-days job scheme do not face problems,” she said.

This afternoon, at a poll rally in Tamluk, Ms Banerjee underlined her position, saying, “I am very much part of INDIA… it was my brainchild. We are together at national level and will continue to be together.”

Ms Banerjee did, though, make it clear – yesterday and today – that she does not see the Congress’ state unit and the CPM, as allies. The Congress and the CPM, which is also part of the INDIA bloc, are allied in Bengal (but rivals in Kerala), but have fielded candidates against the Trinamool.

The Bengal Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee has frequently attacked the Mr Chowdhury-led Congress unit, and the CPM, as having unofficially joined the BJP. “They are not with us… they are with the BJP here.”

Earlier this year, as the Congress was scrambling to confirm seat-share deals with INDIA allies ahead of voting for the 2024 Lok Sabha election, Ms Banerjee – seen as one of the group’s more cantankerous members – refused to play ball, insisting she would not give up more seats to that party than necessary.

She pointed to the Congress’ abysmal record in the 2019 election – in which it won just two of 42 seats – and insisted her party had the best chance to defeat the BJP in the state.

Bengal has 42 Lok Sabha seats, of which the Trinamool won 22 last time and the BJP got 18, and Ms Banerjee reasoned the Congress simply did not have the clout to stop the saffron party in the state.

After a tension-filled few weeks in January and February, Ms Banerjee walked away from the bloc.

M&M Shares Hit Fresh 52-Week High on Complete Stake Sale in New Delhi Centre for Sight for ₹425 Crore.

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M&M Shares: On May 14, 2024, Mahindra Holdings signed the share purchase agreement with the three bidders, NDCFS, and the eye care chain’s promoters. A total of ₹425.39 crore has been paid for the entire stake selling transaction.

On Wednesday, May 15, Mahindra & Mahindra Ltd. shares reached a new 52-week high of ₹2,306.95 per share on the NSE following the company’s announcement that its whole investment in the eye care business New Delhi Centre for Sight Limited (NDCFS) had been successfully sold for ₹425.39 crore.

Also Read Gift Nifty, Global Markets Hint Gap-Up Open on May 16; FIIs Trade in Focus.

Mahindra Holdings Limited (MHL), the firm’s wholly-owned subsidiary, entered a Share Purchase Agreement (SPA) with three bidders on Tuesday to sell its entire investment of 30.83% of the paid-up capital of NDCFS on a fully diluted basis, according to a filing the company made with the markets.

The buyers in this sale include Space Investments Limited, Defati Investments Holdings BV and Infinity Partners, and neither of them belongs to the Promoter or Promoter Group Companies of Mahindra Holdings Ltd, M&M informed the stock exchanges.

The SPA was executed by Mahindra Holdings on May 14, 2024, with the three buyers and NDCFS, along with the promoters of the eye care chain. The entire stake sale deal has been conducted for an aggregate consideration of ₹425.39 crore.

Space Investments bought 25.7% of the stake offered for sale on a fully diluted basis for a consideration of ₹354.56 crore, while Defati Investments Holdings BV picked a 2.85% stake in New Delhi Centre for Sight Limited for ₹39.4 crore, along with Infinity Partners purchasing a small 2.28% stake in NDCFS for a consideration of ₹31.43 crore.

Also Read TBO Tek Share Price Makes a Bumper Debut, Stock Opens with 55% Premium at ₹1,426 Piece on NSE.

As per the Companies Act, 2013, NDCFS is an associate company of Mahindra Holdings as well as a wholly owned subsidiary of MHL and ‘that of the Company under Indian Accounting Standards’, Mahindra & Mahindra stated in its latest exchange filing.

However, on the completion of the aforestated stake sale, the shareholding of MHL has become ‘Nil’ in NDCFS, and the latter no longer is an Associate Company of MHL, along with a joint venture.

In April 2024, the company’s domestic sales across vehicle categories grew by 13% to 68,614 vehicles against 60,481 vehicles in the year-ago period. The company’s domestic sales of vans and utility vehicles grew by 32% in April 2024 to 41,008 vehicles from 34,698 vehicles in the corresponding month of the previous year.

Mahindra and Mahindra Ltd shares were trading 1.06% higher at ₹2,294 per piece at 1:06 pm on the NSE.

‘Hated that Priyanka Chopra and I were always Called Jonas Brothers’ wives’, says Sophie Turner.

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Sophie Turner said that she hated when everyone addressed her and Priyanka Copra as the ‘wives’.

Sophie Turner, in her recent interview, talked about her divorce and her bonding with the Jonas family. The Game of Thrones actress also spoke about her tuning with Priyanka Chopra and Nick Jonas.

While talking about her personal life, Sophie recalled how much she ‘hated’ being called as wives of Jonas Brothers. While speaking to British Vogue, she said, “There was a lot of attention on the three brothers and the wives. Well, we were always called the wives, and I hated that. It was kind of this plus-one feeling.”

Also Read Taylor Swift And Billie Eilish Music Graces The Bridgerton Season 3, Release Time.

Sophie also mentioned that Joe never made her feel like that though. “That’s nothing to do with him – in no way did he make me feel that – it was just that the perception of us (herself, Priyanka Chopra, and Kevin’s wife Danielle Jonas) was as the groupies in the band,” she added.

Sophie, Priyanka and Danielle, who also got featured in music video ‘Sucker, often used to go to Jonas Brothers concerts where people would call then J-sisters. People often addressed them as J-sisters.

For the unversed, Sophie and Joe decided to part ways in September 2023. And when this news was announced Sophie was called irresponsible mother for partying for leaving daughters, Willa and Delphine alone.

Earlier, Sophie Turner revealed that she was not sure about stepping into motherhood in her early 20s and even considered terminating her first pregnancy. Turner spoke about how she considered not keeping the child and discussed the situation with her estranged husband, Joe Jonas.

In Bali, Turner found out she was pregnant and said that sat on the news for a week. “Maybe because I was so young, I sat on it for a week,” the actress told British Vogue, reports pagesix.com. Turner said she threw the pregnancy test at Joe Jonas, asking, “What do you think we should do? Do you think we should have it?”

The actress shared that she didn’t know if she wanted to be a mother at the time and even spoke to therapists about her feelings. “When you’re in your early 20s, life is so frivolous,” she said.

“Desh mein koi maai ka laal,” Attacks the INDIA Party for Spreading False Information Regarding CAA.

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During his speech at an Azamgarh rally, Prime Minister Modi further claimed that the CAA is the INDIA most recent manifestation of ‘Modi’s assurance’ and that the Congress has been persecuting refugees for decades.

On Thursday, Prime Minister Narendra Modi chastised the Opposition for supposedly attempting to incite unrest in the nation by disseminating false information over the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA). According to the Prime Minister, the Citizenship by Association (CAA) has already begun to provide Indian citizenship to refugees, and no one can “end the CAA,” despite claims to the contrary from the INDIA bloc.

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Speaking at a gathering in Azamgarh, he further claimed that the CAA is the most recent manifestation of “Modi’s guarantee” and that the Congress has been persecuting refugees for decades. Under the CAA, the process of granting Indian citizenship to refugees has already begun. They are the ones who have to suffer as a result of the country’s religious division; they have all lived in our nation for a considerable amount of time, according to Prime Minister Modi.

“These (Congress) politicians use Mahatma Gandhi’s name to ascend to positions of power, but they are forgetting his exact words. Minorities residing in adjacent countries were assured by Mahatma Gandhi that they were free to visit India at any time. Thousands of families have sought refuge in India over the past 70 years in order to protect their religious and cultural traditions. But since they were not Congress’s voting bloc, Congress never bothered to consider them. The Prime Minister declared, “SP, Congress, and INDIA bloc are trying to incite riots in the country by spreading false information about CAA.”

Also Read Sushil Kumar Modi, Bihar Former Deputy Chief Minister, Passes Away at 72

PM Modi further said that he “unmasked” the intentions of Congress and SP, adding that they can not end CAA. “It’s Modi who has unmasked you. You are a hypocrite, communal. You left this nation to burn in the communal fire for 60 years. I am saying it clearly, it’s Modi’s guarantee: ‘desh-videsh kahin se bhi, jo bhi taakat ikatthi karni hai kar lo’… You can’t end CAA. We are working on giving citizenship to those who are victims of partition, which has already started under CAA,” he added.

PM Modi further said that the excitement shown by the people of Srinagar in the polls is proof that no one can bring back Article 370 and do politics of “vote bank.” “Desh mein koi maai ka laal paida hua hai jo CAA hata sake? (has anyone been born in this country who can repeal the CAA?). Nobody can remove the CAA,” PM Modi said.

On Wednesday, the central government handed over the first set of citizenship certificates, over two months after notifying the rules for the Citizenship (Amendment) Act. Union Home Secretary Ajay Kumar Bhalla handed over citizenship certificates to some applicants. The Home Secretary congratulated the applicants and highlighted salient features of the Citizenship (Amendment) Rules, 2024, as per a statement by the Union Home Ministry.

The CAA, introduced by the Narendra Modi government and passed by Parliament in 2019, aims to confer Indian citizenship to persecuted non-Muslim migrants–including Hindus, Sikhs, Jains, Buddhists, Parsis, and Christians–who migrated from Bangladesh, Pakistan, and Afghanistan and arrived in India before December 31, 2014.

AFCAT Exam Pattern 2024: Total Marks and Negative Marking.

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AFCAT Exam Pattern 2024: Indian Air Force (IAF) officially releases AFCAT exam pattern to help students understand the structure of the exam. Understanding the AFCAT exam pattern enables the students to know the sections from where questions are asked in the exam. By going through the AFCAT exam pattern, candidates will also know the total marks, marking scheme, time duration, and question paper pattern. According to AFCAT exam pattern 2024, candidates are required to solve 100 questions, depending on whether they are trying for a technical or non-technical branch. According to AFCAT Exam Analysis, the overall difficulty level of the exam is moderate. Read below for more details on the exam pattern of AFCAT.

AFCAT Exam Pattern 2024

AFCAT and EKT exams are conducted in computer-based mode. Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT) is conducted for candidates who opt for Ground Duty (Technical) branch. The language of the exam is English. A total of 100 questions are asked in the AFCAT exam while EKT carries 50 questions. Candidates get two hours to solve AFCAT paper while 45 minutes for EKT. The test paper of AFCAT comprises questions from General Awareness, Verbal Ability in English, Numerical Ability, Military Reasoning, and Aptitude test. EKT comprises questions from Mechanical, Computer Science, and Electrical & Electronics. The difficulty level of AFCAT syllabus is of graduation level. The total marks allotted to AFCAT are 300 while EKT carries 150 marks.

AFCAT exam pattern highlights the overall structure of the exam such as number of sections, weightage of topics, time duration, total marks, marking scheme and many more. Candidates should prepare as per the exam pattern so that they get familar with the exam process.

Also Read:

AFCAT Exam Pattern

Candidates can check below the highlights of the AFCAT exam pattern.

ParametersDetails
Mode of examOnline
Number of sectionsAFCAT: FourEKT: Three
Number of questionsAFCAT: 100EKT: 50
Maximum marksAFCAT: 300EKT: 150
Type of questionsObjective type
AFCAT Paper DurationTwo hours
Language of paperEnglish

AFCAT Exam Pattern for Online Test

AFCAT exam pattern for online test is given below:

  • AFCAT online test is divided into four sections
  • The question paper of AFCAT comprises a total of 100 questions
  • The maximum marks allotted for AFCAT are 300
  • All questions asked in the AFCAT and EKT exams are objective type, having multiple options
  • The question paper is made available in English only
  • Candidates need to secure the minimum qualifying marks to qualify for the exam

The structure of AFCAT exam pattern is given below.

SubjectExam DurationNo of QuestionsMaximum Marks
General Awareness02 hours100300
Verbal Ability in English
Numerical Ability
Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test

How Many Papers are in AFCAT?

There are total of four papers in AFCAT according to AFCAT Exam Pattern which includes General Awareness, Verbal Ability in English, Numerical Ability and Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test. AFCAT paper duration is 150 minutes i.e two hours. Candidates need to score between 140 to 190 marks out of 300 in AFCAT exam.

Which Subjects are included in AFCAT exam?

According to AFCAT exam pattern, the subjects included in the exam are General Awareness, Verbal Ability in English, Numerical Ability and Reasoning, and Military Aptitude Test.

AFCAT Exam Pattern for EKT

The EKT exam is conducted for 45 minutes. The test paper carries questions from subjects such as Mechanical Engineering, Computer Science Engineering, and Electrical & Electronics Engineering. EKT paper carries a total of 50 questions. The maximum marks allotted for EKT exam are 150

The structure of EKT exam pattern is given below.

SubjectTimeNo. of QuestionsMaximum Marks
Mechanical 45 minutes50150
Computer Science
Electrical & Electronics

AFCAT Exam Pattern for Technical Branch

The structure of AFCAT exam pattern for Technical branch is given below.

SectionQuestionsMarksTime
Reasoning and military aptitude test351052 Hours
Verbal ability in English3090
Numerical ability1545
General awareness2060
Mechanics/ Computer science/ Electrical and electronics5015045 min

AFCAT Exam Pattern for Non-Technical Branch

Candidates who apply for ground duty (non-technical branches) should be aware of the AFCAT exam pattern for non-technical branch. The structure of the non-technical branch is given below.

SectionQuestionsMarksTime
Reasoning and military aptitude test351052 Hours
Verbal ability in English3090
Numerical ability1545
General awareness2060

AFCAT Exam Time

The online test of AFCAT is conducted for two hours. EKT is held for 45 minutes. AFCAT exam timings are given below:

Activity Shift 1Shift 2
Reporting time7.30 am12.30 pm
Verification of admit card & ID Proof, Biometrics, Photo/ Thumb Impression/ Sign on Attendance Sheet & candidate seating in exam hall 7.30 am to 9.30 am 12.30 am to 2 pm 
Reading of instructions by candidates9.30 am to 9.45 am 2 pm to 2.15 pm
AFCAT exam 9.45 am to 11.45 am 2.15 pm to 4.15 pm 

AFCAT Marking Scheme

The marking scheme of the AFCAT exam is given below:

  • For correct answers, candidates score three marks. The score of candidates is calculated after deducting AFCAT negative marking
  • There is AFCAT negative marking. One mark is deducted for every incorrect answer
  • No marks are allotted to unattempted questions

AFCAT Exam Pattern: Normalisation Process

AFCAT normalisation of marks is done to adjust the difficulty level of the question paper held across various sessions. This is done to ensure transparency in the calculation of scores.In order to rationalise the marks scored by candidates appearing in different shifts objectively through a statistical method, normalisation scheme is
being implemented as per the following formula:

AFCAT Normalisation

AFSB SSB Exam Pattern

Candidates qualifying the online test of AFCAT are called for AFSB interview. The AFSB interview is conducted in three stages at different centres-Dehradun, Varanasi, Gandhinagar and Mysuru. At AFSB, candidates need to undergo the following tests inorder to ascertain their suitability and gauge your potential as an Officer in the Indian Air Force.

Stage-I

Officer Intelligence Rating Test along with Picture Perception and discussion test is conducted on the first day. Stage-I test is a screening test and only those who qualify are called for subsequent testing. All Stage-I qualified candidates are subjected to document check to ascertain their eligibility for the branches applied for. Candidates who either do not qualify in Stage-I or do not meet the required eligibility criteria are sent back on the first day itself. 

Stage-II

All Stage 1 qualified candidates need to undergo tests as part of their Stage 2 testing during four to five days. Fifth day is for CPSS testing (Flying branch). The following tests are conducted in Stage 2:

  • Psychological Tests are written tests that are conducted by a Psychologist
  • Group Tests are interactive indoor and outdoor activities which are a combination of mental and physical work
  • Interview involves a personal conversation with an Interviewing Officer
  • Candidates who have applied for flying branch and have been recommended, will also have to undergo Computerised Pilot Selection System (CPSS) test

For Flying branch

Computerised Pilot Selection System (CPSS) will be administered to recommended candidates only. This is once in a lifetime test. Candidates who failed the CPSS/ PABT in an earlier attempt or a Flight Cadet suspended from flying training at Air Force Academy are not eligible.

Medical Test

Candidates recommended by the Selection Board, are sent for the medical examination either at Air Force Central Medical Establishment (AFCME), New Delhi or Institute of Aviation Medicine, Bengaluru.

AFCAT Syllabus

AFCAT syllabus is given below.

SubjectsTopics
EnglishComprehension, Error Detection, Antonyms and Testing of Vocabulary, Idioms and Phrases, Synonyms
General KnowledgeHistory, Civics, Geography, Politics, Art, Culture, Sports, Defence, Basic Science, Environment, Current Affairs
Reasoning and Military AptitudeSpatial Ability, Verbal Ability, Simple Interest Time and Distance, Ratio and Proportion, etc.
Numerical AbilityTime and Work, Decimal Fraction, Profit and Loss, Percentage, etc.

There are some notable modifications in the AFCAT Exam Pattern for 2024, especially with regard to negative marking and the distribution of total scores. These changes reflect a deliberate effort to improve the evaluation procedure by striking a balance between precision and accuracy when gauging candidates’ skills and knowledge. While the change in total scores provides a more accurate picture of candidates’ abilities, the addition of negative grading promotes careful planning and critical thought. As candidates are ready to manoeuvre through this revised pattern, it emphasises the value of careful planning, a calculated approach, and flexibility. The ultimate goal of the AFCAT Exam Pattern for 2024 is to promote a more open and merit-based hiring procedure, which will make it easier to find the best applicants to join the esteemed Indian Air Force.

NDA Exam Date 2024 Out: UPSC NDA 2 Exam Schedule.

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NDA Exam Date 2024: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) released NDA 2 notification 2024 on May 15, 2024. The application form is available from May 15 to June 4, 2024. NDA 2 2024 exam will be conducted on September 1, 2024.

NDA dates highlight the important events pertaining to the exam such as application form, notification, issue of admit card, declaration of result and answer key. 

NDA exam is conducted for admission to Army, Navy, and Air Force wings of National Defence Academy, Pune, and Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC), Ezhimala. The exam is conducted two times a year by Union Public Service Commission, the authority that regulates and supervises the exam. Candidates are recruited based on the written exam and SSB interview.

NDA Exam Dates 2025

UPSC released the dates for the NDA 2025 exam. The UPSC Calendar 2025 was used to notify the exam dates. The exam calendar indicates that the NDA 1 2025 exam will take place on April 13, 2025. The application form and NDA 1 2025 notification will be made available on December 11, 2024. The exam application deadline is December 31, 2024. The date of the NDA 2 2025 exam is September 14, 2025. On May 28, 2025, the NDA 2 2025 notification will be made public. The application will remain accessible till June 17, 2024. UPSC CDS 2024: Application (Out), Alert, Time, Schedule, Qualifications, Courses, and Up-to-Date Information.

NDA 2024 Dates

Take a look at the table below for the complete schedule of NDA 2024 exam.

DatesUpcoming Exam Dates
15 May ’24 – 04 Jun ’24NDA 2 Application Form 2024ONGOING
09 Sep ’24NDA 2 Exam Date 2024

DatesPast Exam Dates
15 May ’24NDA 2 Notification 2024
21 Apr ’24NDA 1 2024 exam
20 Dec ’23NDA 1 Notification 2024
20 Dec ’23 – 09 Jan ’24NDA 1 Application Form 2024
26 Sep ’23NDA 2 Result 2023
03 Sep ’23NDA 2 2023 exam
11 Aug ’23 – 03 Sep ’23NDA 2 Admit Card 2023
17 May ’23 – 06 Jun ’23NDA 2 2023 application form
01 May ’23NDA 1 result 2023
16 Apr ’23NDA 1 2023 exam
24 Mar ’23 – 16 Apr ’23NDA 1 Admit Card 2023
18 Jan ’23 – 24 Jan ’23Online correction & Withdrawal of NDA 1 2023 application form
21 Dec ’22NDA 1 notification 2023
21 Dec ’22 – 09 Jan ’23Offline fee payment for NDA 1 2023
21 Dec ’22 – 12 Jan ’23Online fee payment for NDA 1 2023
21 Dec ’22 – 12 Jan ’23NDA 1 2023 application form
19 Sep ’22NDA 2 result 2022
10 Aug ’22 – 04 Sep ’22NDA 2 admit card 2022
14 Jun ’22 – 20 Jun ’22NDA 2 application form withdrawal link
09 May ’22NDA 1 2022 result

Important Events of NDA 2024 Exam

The details regarding NDA events are given below:

NDA Application Form Date 2024

NDA 1 application form 2024 was released on December 20, 2023. The last date to apply for the exam was January 9, 2024. NDA 2 application form 2024 will be released on May 15, 2024. The last date to apply for the exam is June 4, 2024. NDA application form is released online on the official website. NDA application form can be filled in two parts: I and II. To submit the application form, candidates need to pay the requisite examination fees of INR 100. The examination fees can be paid both online and offline. Both male and female candidates can apply for NDA exam. The steps to fill the application form are given below: CDS 2 2024: Application (Out), Notification, Eligibility, Pattern, Syllabus & More

  • Visit the official website of UPSC
  • Register online by filling the Part I of application
  • Login with the registration number to fill Part II of the application form
  • Fill all the details in Part II application form
  • Submit the fees and take printout of the application form
UPSC CalendarNDA Preparation Tips
NDA notification NDA Books 
NDA recruitment NDA Salary
NDA VacanciesNDA exam centres
NDA Mock tests–

Download CURRENT AFFAIRS Guide – Click Here

NDA Admit Card Date 2024

The admit card is released three weeks before the exam. NDA admit card is released online which candidates need to download either by entering registration number or roll number. The steps to download NDA admit card are given below:

  • Visit the official website of UPSC
  • In the ‘Whats New’ section candidates will find the ‘Admit Card’ link
  • Clicking the link, the login page opens
  • In the login page, candidates need to enter the required credentials
  • NDA admit card appears on the screen 
  • Download the admit card and take its printout

NDA Exam

NDA written exam comprises two papers, Mathematics and General Ability Test. The total marks of the written exam are 900. The SSB Interview carries 900 marks. Candidates qualifying the written exam are called for SSB Interview. NDA exam pattern for written exam is given below.

PapersSubjectMaximum marksDuration
Paper 1Mathematics3002 ½
Paper 2GAT6002 ½
Total9005 hours

NDA Answer Key Date 2024

The official answer key is released after the completion of the selection process. However, several coaching institutes release NDA answer key unofficially within a few hours after completion of the test. Candidates can use the answer key to compare the responses marked in the exam. The steps to download the answer key are given below:

  • Click the subject-wise links of answer keys provided on this page
  • The answer key page opens in PDF form
  • Download the answer key and save it for further reference  

NDA Result Date 2024

The result is announced online on the official website. NDA 1 result 2024 will be announced on May 2024. NDA 2 result 2024 will be announced in September 2024. NDA result is released in PDF format and carries the roll numbers of qualified candidates. Candidates who qualify the written exam are called for the SSB Interview. The steps to check NDA result are given below:

  • Visit the official website of UPSC
  • Click the result link-‘National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination result’ on the UPSC home page
  • NDA result opens on a new page in PDF form
  • Candidates can search their roll numbers and names in the result PDF through Ctrl+F
  • If their roll numbers and names are in the result PDF, this means candidates have qualified the exam
  • Download the result PDF and take its printout

NDA Exam Timing

NDA exam is conducted in two shifts-morning and afternoon shifts. The exam for the morning shift is conducted from 10 am to 12.30 pm whereas the exam for the afternoon shift is conducted from 2 pm to 4.30 pm. NDA shift timings are given below.

ShiftTiming
Morning 10.00 am to 12:30 pm
Afternoon2.00 pm to 4:30 pm

An important step in preparing for the UPSC NDA 2 Exam is the announcement of the NDA Exam Date for 2024. Candidates can carefully arrange their preparation tactics and get ready to demonstrate their abilities on the chosen date now that the schedule is released. An thrilling journey towards a career in the armed forces, where passion, perseverance, and dedication are the keys to success, is also marked by this news. In order to achieve their goals of serving the country with honour and valour, candidates are urged to make the most of this time by being disciplined and focused in their studies.

Taylor Swift And Billie Eilish Music Graces The Bridgerton Season 3, Release Time.

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Bridgerton season 3 part 1 will be released on Netflix on May 16th. Here is what time it will be released in your country, including the US, UK, Brazil, India, Australia and more.

Bridgerton season 3 part 1 (the first four episodes!) will be released on Netflix worldwide on May 16th at midnight PT. This means that all of the episodes will become available to stream at the corresponding time in your country. Everyone will be able to experience Polin season at the same time!

What time does Bridgerton season 3 part 1 come out on Netflix?

Penelope and Colin's romance takes centre stage in Bridgerton season 3

Bridgerton season 3 part 1 release times: Here’s when it comes out in your country

Bridgerton season 3 part 1 will be released on Thursday May 16th at 12AM Pacific Time (PT). The exact time it’s released in your country will depend on where you live in the world and what time zone you live in.

For viewers in the U.K., the episodes will become available to stream on Netflix at 8AM (BST).

Here are the Bridgerton season 3 part 1 release times for a handful of major time zones and countries:

  • United States (PDT) – 12:00 AM
  • United States (EDT) – 03:00 AM
  • Canada – 3:00 AM (Toronto), 12:00 AM (Vancouver)
  • Brazil (Rio De Janiero) – 4:00 AM
  • United Kingdom (GMT) – 8:00 AM
  • Europe (Central European Time) – 9:00 AM
  • South Africa (Cape Town, Central Africa Time) – 9:00 AM
  • India (New Delhi) – 12:30 PM
  • Indonesia (Jakarta) – 2:00 PM
  • Philippines (Manila) – 3:00 PM
  • Hong Kong – 3:00 PM
  • Singapore – 3:00 PM
  • Australia – 3:00 PM (Perth), 5:00 PM (Sydney)
  • Japan (Tokyo) – 4:00 PM
  • New Zealand (Auckland) – 7:00 PM

How many episodes are there? When does Bridgerton season 3 part 2 come out?

When Bridgerton season 3 drops on May 16th, there will only be four episodes available to stream. But don’t panic, that’s not the end of the season! The final four episodes will follow a few weeks later. Part 2 (which consists of episodes 5, 6, 7 and 8) will drop on Netflix on Thursday June 13th. And it’ll be the same time as above so mark your calendars and set your alarms to make sure you’re among the first viewers to find out how Colin and Penelope’s romance progresses. Mirror scene, anyone?

What happens in Bridgerton season 3?

Well, first of all, in case you haven’t noticed, season 3 will focus on Colin Bridgerton and Penelope Featherington who, after years of being friends, finally inch closer and closer to a full blown, very spicy romance of their own.

The official synopsis of teases that Penelope has decided that it’s time to take a husband, after giving up on her long-held crush on Colin after hearing his negative words about her. However, Pen’s lack of confidence means she struggles to make a match.

Colin has returned from his summer travels, looking every inch the leading man, but is “disheartened” when he realises Pen is now giving him the cold shoulder.

“Eager to win back her friendship, Colin offers to mentor Penelope in the ways of confidence to help her find a husband this season. But when his lessons start working a little too well, Colin must grapple with whether his feelings for Penelope are truly just friendly,” the synopsis reads.

Elsewhere, teaser clips have hinted that Francesca’s debut will play a big part in season 3, Benedict finds himself with a new woman, and Anthony and Kate are still enjoying their honeymoon phase. Oh, and Eloise and Penelope’s friendship is still in the pits.

As for what else happens? We’ll have to tune in on May 16th to find out!

Also Read Gift Nifty, Global Markets Hint Gap-Up Open on May 16; FIIs Trade in Focus.

Check out the soundtrack for the first four Episodes

EpisodeSong TitleArtist
1“abcdefu”Gayle (performed by Vitula)
2“Dynamite”Vitamin String Quartet
“Jealous”Shimmer
3“Cheap Thrills”Vitamin String Quartet
“Happier Than Ever”Vitamin String Quartet
4“Snow on the Beach”Atwood Quartet
“Give Me Everything”Archer Marsh

Bridgerton Season 3 premieres on Netflix on May 16. Watch the official trailer below.

Gift Nifty, Global Markets Hint Gap-Up Open on May 16; FIIs Trade in Focus.

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Pre-market stock update on Thursday, May 16:With an emphasis on FII inflows after US rates dropped to 5-week lows, equity markets in India are anticipated to follow strong foreign signals and trade on a positive note today.
Gift Nifty futures opened at 22,380 at 7:00 AM, indicating a probable 70-point gap-up on the Nifty 50 index.

Global Markets

The US market closed at all-time highs overnight as statistics revealed that US consumer prices increased less than anticipated in April, indicating that inflation has started to decline in the second quarter. According to the data, there could be many interest rate reductions in 2024.
In April, the US consumer price index (CPI) increased by 0.3%, less than the 0.4% increase that was anticipated. The figure indicates a slowdown in domestic demand, which US central bank officials are probably happy to hear as they work to facilitate a “soft-landing” for the economy.

Following which, all three indices closed at new life-time highs. Dow Jones jumped 0.9 per cent. The S&P 500 rose 1.2 per cent, and Nasdaq soared 1.4 per cent.

The US 10-year bond yield eased to 4.32 per cent, its lowest level in the last five weeks. Among commodities, Gold futures jumped back to $2,400 levels, while Brent Crude Oil hovered around $83 per barrel.

Mirroring the cues from the US peers, the Australian and Malaysian stock benchmark indices surged over 1 per cent each this morning. Taiwan too was up 0.8 per cent. Japan’s Nikkei held a 0.6 per cent gain even as data showed that its economy shrank more than expected in Q12024 hit by slowdown in consumer spending and sticky inflation.

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Domestic Cues

Thursday’s FII flows will be closely watched after a decline in US yields. In the derivatives market, the FIIs are said to have built big short positions and have been active sellers thus far in May. On Wednesday, the DIIs net bought shares worth Rs 3,788 crore, while the FIIs net sold equities worth Rs 2,833 crore.

The Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) continued to aggressively build short positions in Index futures. The long short ratio on 14th May stood at 30.46 per cent, said Ashwin Ramani, Derivatives & Technical Analyst of SAMCO Securities in a note.

Foreign investors are the most pessimistic in over a decade on Indian stocks amid speculation over Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s party winning fewer seats in the ongoing national elections than previously estimated.

Net short positions – measured as the difference between the number of index futures contracts on which global funds are long to those on which they hold a short position – surged to 213,224 contracts, data compiled by Bloomberg showed. The gap is the widest since data going back to 2012. Among individual stocks, shares of oil & gas producers & explorers will be in focus on Thursday after the government, in its bi-weekly review, cut the windfall tax on petroleum crude to Rs 5,700 per metric tonne from Rs 8,400. The tax remained unchanged at zero for diesel and aviation turbine fuel.

That apart, shares of Biocon, Container Corporation of India, Crompton Greaves Consumer Electricals, DCW, eClerx Services, Endurance Technologies, Gail India, Hindustan Aeronautics (HAL), Vodafone Idea, Indian Hume Pipe, Indoco Remedies, JK Paper, Krishna Institute of Medical Sciences (KIMS), Kopran, Mahindra & Mahindra (M&M), Info Edge (Naukri), Prism Johnson, Sanghvi Movers, Solar Industries, Texmaco Rail, V-Guard and Wonderala Holidays are likely to be on investors radar ahead of Q4 results today.

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Trading strategy for Thursday, May 16 – Should you be a buyer or seller today? Here’s what market experts recommend:

Ashwin Ramani of SAMCO Securities states that the support level of 22,200 which earlier acted as a strong support for Nifty, is acting as resistance now. The Nifty has failed to aggressively close above the channel support level convincingly in the last two trading sessions. The call writers (Bears) have sizeable positions at the 22,200 Strike and the option activity at this strike will provide cues about Nifty’s Intraday direction ahead of the weekly expiry today.

Om Mehra, Technical Analyst of SAMCO Securities cautions, that the Nifty is forming an inverted head and shoulder pattern on the hourly chart, with the neckline remaining around 22,320; if crossed, expect a potential rally towards the 22,450-22,500 range.

On the downside, immediate support for the Nifty is seen at the 22,080 level. The Relative Strength Index (RSI) continues to hover below the 50 mark, signalling short-term weakness in the market, the analyst added.

Hrishikesh Yedve, AVP Technical and Derivatives Research at Asit C. Mehta Investment Interrmediates also highlights that technically, on the daily scale, the Nifty has encountered resistance near the 22,300 levels, where the 21-Days exponential moving average (21-DEMA) is placed. As long as the Nifty remains below the 22,300 levels, we expect the index to consolidate in the range of 22,000-22,300. 

Despite the fall on Wednesday, the Bank Nifty is still respecting a bullish engulfing candle, indicating strength. As long as the Bank Nifty remains above 46,983, the bullish momentum will continue. On the upside, the 21-DEMA is placed near 48,060, which will serve as the first hurdle for the index, followed by 48,500, Hrishikesh said in his note.

Sentiment remains subdued as long as it stays below 22,250. A decisive move beyond this level could potentially propel Gift Nifty towards 22,600 and beyond. Conversely, a failure to sustain above 22,200 might invite selling pressure in the market, said Rupak De, Senior Technical Analyst at LKP Securities.

Maldives Questions Indian Aircraft Pilots..

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The Maldives High Commission of India declared in a statement that Indian aviation platforms have always operated in the Maldives in accordance with “agreed procedures and with due authorisation.”

India on Tuesday dismissed the claim made by Maldivian Defence Minister Ghassan Maumoon, alleging that Indian military helicopter pilots stationed in the Maldives carried out an unauthorised operation in 2019.

In a statement, the High Commission of India in the Maldives asserted that Indian aviation platforms in the Maldives have always operated according to the “agreed procedures and with due authorisation.”

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The clarification came days after India completed the withdrawal of 76 military personnel from the Maldives following a demand by President Mohamed Muizzu. Relations between India and Maldives deteriorated since Muizzu, a pro-China leader, came to power in November last year.

Muizzu had set May 10 as the deadline for the withdrawal of the Indian military troops from his country.

Addressing a press conference here on Saturday, Defence Minister Ghassan said he knew of one of the aviation platforms undertaking an unauthorised sortie.

He narrated an incident where one of the two helicopters operated by Indian military personnel in the Maldives landed in Thimarafushi, allegedly without permission – a case, which he said, was reviewed by the Parliament’s Committee on National Security Services (241 Committee), when he was a lawmaker.

However, the Indian mission dismissed the allegation.

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“Indian aviation platforms in the Maldives have always operated as per agreed procedures and with due authorisation from the Maldives National Defence Force (MNDF),” the High Commission of India said.

Referring to the remarks by the Maldivian Defence Minister, the High Commission said the particular incident which saw an emergency landing at Thimarafushi on October 9, 2019, was “necessitated due to an unforeseen exigency.” “The specific sortie on 09 October 2019 referred to at the press conference was also undertaken with the approval of MNDF.

The emergency landing at Thimarafushi was necessitated due to an unforeseen exigency, which was carried out after taking necessary on-ground approvals from the Air Traffic Control (ATC) to ensure the safety and security of the platform and crew,” the High Commission asserted.

According to local media reports, on May 11, the MNDF revealed that the Indian military personnel who were previously operating the helicopters gifted to the Maldives by the Indian government had made a trip on the helicopter without notifying the Maldivian military during the administration of former President Ibrahim Mohamed Solih.

Incidentally, at the same press conference, Defence Minister Ghassan also confessed that the Maldives military still does not have pilots capable of operating three aircraft donated by India.

The Indian military personnel were stationed in the Maldives to operate two helicopters and a Dornier aircraft gifted by India. The helicopters and the aircraft were used primarily for medical evacuations.

The last batch of Indian military personnel were repatriated by Friday, as per the May 10 deadline set following an agreement between the two countries in February in New Delhi.

The Maldives is India’s key maritime neighbour in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR) and occupies a special place in its initiatives like ‘SAGAR’ (Security and Growth for All in the Region) and the ‘Neighbourhood First Policy’ of the Indian government.

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