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M&M Shares Hit Fresh 52-Week High on Complete Stake Sale in New Delhi Centre for Sight for ₹425 Crore.

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M&M Shares: On May 14, 2024, Mahindra Holdings signed the share purchase agreement with the three bidders, NDCFS, and the eye care chain’s promoters. A total of ₹425.39 crore has been paid for the entire stake selling transaction.

On Wednesday, May 15, Mahindra & Mahindra Ltd. shares reached a new 52-week high of ₹2,306.95 per share on the NSE following the company’s announcement that its whole investment in the eye care business New Delhi Centre for Sight Limited (NDCFS) had been successfully sold for ₹425.39 crore.

Also Read Gift Nifty, Global Markets Hint Gap-Up Open on May 16; FIIs Trade in Focus.

Mahindra Holdings Limited (MHL), the firm’s wholly-owned subsidiary, entered a Share Purchase Agreement (SPA) with three bidders on Tuesday to sell its entire investment of 30.83% of the paid-up capital of NDCFS on a fully diluted basis, according to a filing the company made with the markets.

The buyers in this sale include Space Investments Limited, Defati Investments Holdings BV and Infinity Partners, and neither of them belongs to the Promoter or Promoter Group Companies of Mahindra Holdings Ltd, M&M informed the stock exchanges.

The SPA was executed by Mahindra Holdings on May 14, 2024, with the three buyers and NDCFS, along with the promoters of the eye care chain. The entire stake sale deal has been conducted for an aggregate consideration of ₹425.39 crore.

Space Investments bought 25.7% of the stake offered for sale on a fully diluted basis for a consideration of ₹354.56 crore, while Defati Investments Holdings BV picked a 2.85% stake in New Delhi Centre for Sight Limited for ₹39.4 crore, along with Infinity Partners purchasing a small 2.28% stake in NDCFS for a consideration of ₹31.43 crore.

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As per the Companies Act, 2013, NDCFS is an associate company of Mahindra Holdings as well as a wholly owned subsidiary of MHL and ‘that of the Company under Indian Accounting Standards’, Mahindra & Mahindra stated in its latest exchange filing.

However, on the completion of the aforestated stake sale, the shareholding of MHL has become ‘Nil’ in NDCFS, and the latter no longer is an Associate Company of MHL, along with a joint venture.

In April 2024, the company’s domestic sales across vehicle categories grew by 13% to 68,614 vehicles against 60,481 vehicles in the year-ago period. The company’s domestic sales of vans and utility vehicles grew by 32% in April 2024 to 41,008 vehicles from 34,698 vehicles in the corresponding month of the previous year.

Mahindra and Mahindra Ltd shares were trading 1.06% higher at ₹2,294 per piece at 1:06 pm on the NSE.

Motorola Edge 50 Fusion launched in India, price effectively starts from Rs 20,999.

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Motorola has launched a new smartphone, the Motorola Edge 50 Fusion, in India today. The company, over the years, has carved a niche for itself and has often presented us with impressive smartphones and competitive prices. The price of the latest Motorola phone effectively starts from Rs 20,999. Prior to the launch, several details of the phone had already been made official. The Moto Edge 50 Fusion runs on Snapdragon 7s Gen 2 processor and comes with a sleek design.

Talking about the launch, Mr TM Narasimhan, Managing Director, Motorola India said “We are thrilled to introduce the motorola edge 50 Fusion, representing a significant milestone in our commitment to delivering cutting-edge technology and innovative solutions to our valued customers. Our focus towards delivering meaningful innovation reflects in the exceptional camera and groundbreaking design of the edge 50 Fusion as it sets a new standard for excellence in the smartphone industry. We are confident that the edge 50 Fusion will exceed expectations and leave a lasting impression on consumers as we continue to shape the future of mobile technology.”

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  • Motorola launched Moto Edge 50 Fusion in India
  • The phone’s price effectively starts from Rs 20,999
  • The device features a 50-megapixel Sony-Lytia 700C primary sensor

Motorola Edge 50 Fusion launched in India: Price and availability

The Motorola Edge 50 Fusion is available in three colour options – Marshmallow Blue vegan leather finish, Hot Pink in vegan suede finish and Forest Blue in PMMA (acrylic glass) finish. The smartphone will go on sale from May 22 at noon on Flipkart, Motorola’s website and leading retail stores including Reliance Digital. Further, the phone is available in two storage variants, 8GB+128GB and 12GB + 256 GB.

Talking about the price, the 8GB+128GB variant costs Rs 22,999. However, the phone can be yours for Rs 20,999 as there is a bank offer of Rs 2,000 for ICICI Bank credit card users. Also, if you buy the phone via Flipkart, you can get a Rs 2,000 exchange bonus for any old phone.

For the 12 GB+256 GB variant, the phone costs Rs 24,999 but can be yours for Rs 22,999 if you take advantage of the special offers.

Motorola Edge 50 Fusion

In terms of design, the Motorola Edge 50 Fusion comes in a sleek form factor with premium build quality. The phone has a slim 7.9mm profile and weighs only 175g, making it one of the lightest in its class. The phone boasts a dual rear camera setup housed within an integrated camera housing, showcasing Motorola’s signature Endless Edge Design. Users can choose between two finishes for the back panel: vegan leather or PMMA, catering to different style preferences.

Moving on to the display, the Motorola Edge 50 Fusion has a 6.7-inch Full HD 3D curved pOLED display. With a high refresh rate of 144Hz and a peak brightness of 1,600 nits, users can expect immersive visuals with vibrant colours and smooth transitions. The display is further protected by Corning Gorilla Glass 5.

Under the hood, the smartphone is powered by the latest Qualcomm Snapdragon 7s Gen 2 chipset, promising seamless performance and efficient multitasking. Running on the Android 14 operating system, the device ensures a smooth and intuitive user experience, with the promise of three years of OS upgrades and four years of security updates. Notable software features include Moto Connect, Moto Secure, Family Space, PC support, and more, enhancing the device’s versatility and functionality.

Coming to the camera, the phone comes with a 50-megapixel Sony-Lytia 700C primary sensor with OIS support and a 13-megapixel ultra-wide-angle lens. Additionally, the device will feature a 32-megapixel selfie shooter for selfies and video calls.

In terms of battery, the Motorola Edge 50 Fusion runs on a 5,000mAh battery paired with 68W TurboPower fast charging support. Moreover, the device comes with an IP68 rating, ensuring resistance against water and dust—a feature that promises to enhance its durability and reliability.

France Declares State Of Emergency In New Caledonia As Protests Rage

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Paris: 

France has declared a state of emergency on the Pacific archipelago of New Caledonia after violent protests flared up against electoral reforms killing one police officer and three others, the Washington Post reported.

Notably, New Caledonia is a French overseas territory located hundreds of miles off Australia’s eastern coast.

The violence — the worst in decades — is the latest flash point in long-running tensions over Paris’ role in the archipelago.

“On behalf of the government, I reiterate before you the call for calm and appeasement,” government spokeswoman Prisca Thevenot said Wednesday at a news briefing following a ministerial meeting.

She paid tribute to the four people who lost their lives in the unrest and called for “the resumption of political dialogue” to find a solution to the violence.

Also Read Sunil Chhetri, Indian Football Team Captain, Announces Retirement; World Cup Qualifier Against Kuwait to be his Swansong.

The state of emergency came into effect at 8 pm (Paris time) on Wednesday and 5 am in Noumea, the island’s capital.

According to French law, a state of emergency can be declared in situations of “imminent danger resulting from serious breaches of public order.”

It grants local authorities expanded powers, to cut off public access to certain areas, for example, and to execute searches and prevent certain individuals from entering those areas if they are deemed to represent a threat to public safety, the Washington Post reported.

“All violence is intolerable and will be the subject of a relentless response to ensure the return of order,” a statement released by French President Emmanuel Macron’s office on Wednesday read.

Reacting to the violent protest, French Prime Minister Gabriel Attal said, “Since the start of the week, New Caledonia has been hit by violence of a rare intensity.” He added that a state of emergency “will allow us to roll out massive means to restore order.”

The unrest began on Monday as French lawmakers prepared to vote on a decision to expand voting rights in the territory. However, critics argue that this could marginalize the Indigenous Kanak population and benefit pro-French politicians. The National Assembly adopted the revision overnight.

But, for the legislation to become a law, both chambers of parliament still must vote a final time, the Voice of America reported.

Groups representing the Kanak people — who make up about 40 per cent of the territory’s 3,00,000-strong population — have long sought independence, while the descendants of European colonizers wish to remain part of France, according to the Washington Post.

Under the 1998 Noumea Accord, which helped end a decade of unrest, voting was to be restricted to Kanaks and individuals born before 1998. But, the new constitutional measure will allow anyone who has been a resident of New Caledonia for 10 years to vote in local elections — diluting the power of the Kanaks.

“We feel oppressed, we’re angry,” Voice of America quoted a woman as saying to the Caledonia TV. She questioned whether people in France were listening to Kanaks like herself.

French Minister of the Interior and Overseas Territories Gerald Darmanin told RTL French radio early Wednesday that “hundreds” of people were injured, including about 100 police officers and gendarmes whose barracks were attacked with axes and live ammunition.

“Calm must absolutely be restored,” he said. “There are hundreds of injured in New Caledonia, dozens of houses and businesses that have been burned, set alight.”

The French High Commission informed on Wednesday that at least 130 people had been arrested. It also reported “numerous” incidents of arson and looting against businesses, infrastructure, and public buildings. The mission added that there had been an attempted ‘prison break’.

The French government has announced the deployment of additional police officers and gendarmes as reinforcements.

French authorities also imposed an overnight curfew and banned gatherings in the capital, Noumea. New Caledonia’s La Tontouta International Airport is closed to commercial flights.

The mineral-rich New Caledonia was annexed by France in 1853, and all inhabitants were given French citizenship in 1957. However, the territory has seen decades of tensions between Kanaks and European descendants over the issue of independence, according to the Washington Post.

In addition to the rules on voting rights, the 1998 Noumea agreement set out provisions for three referendums to decide New Caledonia’s future, but each one rejected ‘independence’. Notably, the last vote, held in December 2021 was boycotted by pro-independence parties, because of the coronavirus pandemic.

‘Hated that Priyanka Chopra and I were always Called Jonas Brothers’ wives’, says Sophie Turner.

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Sophie Turner said that she hated when everyone addressed her and Priyanka Copra as the ‘wives’.

Sophie Turner, in her recent interview, talked about her divorce and her bonding with the Jonas family. The Game of Thrones actress also spoke about her tuning with Priyanka Chopra and Nick Jonas.

While talking about her personal life, Sophie recalled how much she ‘hated’ being called as wives of Jonas Brothers. While speaking to British Vogue, she said, “There was a lot of attention on the three brothers and the wives. Well, we were always called the wives, and I hated that. It was kind of this plus-one feeling.”

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Sophie also mentioned that Joe never made her feel like that though. “That’s nothing to do with him – in no way did he make me feel that – it was just that the perception of us (herself, Priyanka Chopra, and Kevin’s wife Danielle Jonas) was as the groupies in the band,” she added.

Sophie, Priyanka and Danielle, who also got featured in music video ‘Sucker, often used to go to Jonas Brothers concerts where people would call then J-sisters. People often addressed them as J-sisters.

For the unversed, Sophie and Joe decided to part ways in September 2023. And when this news was announced Sophie was called irresponsible mother for partying for leaving daughters, Willa and Delphine alone.

Earlier, Sophie Turner revealed that she was not sure about stepping into motherhood in her early 20s and even considered terminating her first pregnancy. Turner spoke about how she considered not keeping the child and discussed the situation with her estranged husband, Joe Jonas.

In Bali, Turner found out she was pregnant and said that sat on the news for a week. “Maybe because I was so young, I sat on it for a week,” the actress told British Vogue, reports pagesix.com. Turner said she threw the pregnancy test at Joe Jonas, asking, “What do you think we should do? Do you think we should have it?”

The actress shared that she didn’t know if she wanted to be a mother at the time and even spoke to therapists about her feelings. “When you’re in your early 20s, life is so frivolous,” she said.

Sunil Chhetri, Indian Football Team Captain, Announces Retirement; World Cup Qualifier Against Kuwait to be his Swansong.

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The top goal scorer for India, Sunil Chhetri, has declared his retirement from international football.

The most decorated football player in India, Sunil Chhetri, has declared his retirement from international competition. The 39-year-old Chhetri announced in a video posted on the social networking site X that the forthcoming FIFA World Cup Qualifier between India and Kuwait in Kolkata on June 6 will be his final match.

“The recollection of the last 19 years is a combination of duty, pressure and immense joy. I never thought that these are the many games I would play for the country, good or bad but now I did but these last one and half two months I did. And this (the feeling) was very strange. I was probably going towards the decision that this game (against Kuwait) is going to be my last,” Chhetri said.

Sunil Chhetri, a name synonymous with Indian football, boasts a glittering career spanning over two decades. This gifted forward has not only dominated domestic leagues but also carved his name on the international stage. Call it coincidences or a twist of fate, Chhetri will play his final game in the city where he made his India debut 19 years ago. India’s game against Kuwait is a must-win to stay in contention for a World Cup Qualifiers Round 3 berth. Currently ranked second in Group A with four points from four games, India travel to face Qatar in their final group stage match. Only the top two teams progress.

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“There is one day that I never forget and remember it quite often is the first time I played for my country man, it was unbelievable. But the day before, morning of the day, Sukhi sir, my first national team coach, in the morning he came to me and he’s like, you’re going to start? I can’t tell you how I was feeling man. I took my jersey, I sprayed some perfume on it, I have no idea why. So that day, everything that happened, once he told me, from breakfast to lunch and to the game and to my first goal in my debut, to conceding late 80th minute, that day is probably that I will never forget and is one of the best days of my national team journey,” Chhetri added.

“And the moment I told myself first, that yes, this is the game that is going to be my last, is when I started recollecting everything. It was so strange, I started thinking about this game, that game, this coach, that coach, that team, that member, that ground, that away match, this good game, that bad game, all my individual performances, everything came, all the flashes came. So I decided that this is it.”

Watch Sunil Chhetri’s retirement speech below:

Chhetri’s journey began in 2002 with Mohun Bagan. His talent soon propelled him abroad, with stints at the USA’s Kansas City Wizards (2010) and Portugal’s Sporting CP reserves (2012). Back in India, he donned the jerseys of prestigious clubs like East Bengal, Dempo, Mumbai City FC, and currently, Bengaluru FC. It’s with Bengaluru that Chhetri truly flourished, lifting trophies like the I-League (2014, 2016), ISL (2019), and Super Cup (2018). He even led them to the AFC Cup final in 2016.

Chhetri, the goal-scoring machine

While club success is impressive, Sunil Chhetri’s true magic lies in his international exploits. He has been instrumental in India’s victories in the Nehru Cup (2007, 2009, 2012) and the SAFF Championship (2011, 2015, 2021). Most significantly, his contribution to India’s 2008 AFC Challenge Cup win secured their first AFC Asian Cup appearance in 27 years.

But it’s his goalscoring prowess that sets Chhetri apart. Since his debut goal in 2002, he has amassed a staggering tally. With 94 goals in 150 international appearances, he sits comfortably as the third-highest active international goal-scorer, behind only Cristiano Ronaldo of Portugal and Argentina’s Lionel Messi. This achievement places him fourth on the all-time list.

Chhetri’s international debut came in 2005, followed by his first goal against Pakistan. A defining moment arrived in the 2011 SAFF Championship, where he surpassed Indian legend I.M. Vijayan’s record of six goals in a single edition by scoring a phenomenal seven, propelling India to victory and becoming the national team’s highest scorer.

Across club and country, Chhetri’s goal tally stands at a remarkable 252 in 515 appearances, averaging almost a goal every two games. This consistency and talent haven’t gone unnoticed. In 2022, FIFA honoured him with a documentary titled “Captain Fantastic,” celebrating his journey and achievements.

“Desh mein koi maai ka laal,” Attacks the INDIA Party for Spreading False Information Regarding CAA.

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During his speech at an Azamgarh rally, Prime Minister Modi further claimed that the CAA is the INDIA most recent manifestation of ‘Modi’s assurance’ and that the Congress has been persecuting refugees for decades.

On Thursday, Prime Minister Narendra Modi chastised the Opposition for supposedly attempting to incite unrest in the nation by disseminating false information over the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA). According to the Prime Minister, the Citizenship by Association (CAA) has already begun to provide Indian citizenship to refugees, and no one can “end the CAA,” despite claims to the contrary from the INDIA bloc.

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Speaking at a gathering in Azamgarh, he further claimed that the CAA is the most recent manifestation of “Modi’s guarantee” and that the Congress has been persecuting refugees for decades. Under the CAA, the process of granting Indian citizenship to refugees has already begun. They are the ones who have to suffer as a result of the country’s religious division; they have all lived in our nation for a considerable amount of time, according to Prime Minister Modi.

“These (Congress) politicians use Mahatma Gandhi’s name to ascend to positions of power, but they are forgetting his exact words. Minorities residing in adjacent countries were assured by Mahatma Gandhi that they were free to visit India at any time. Thousands of families have sought refuge in India over the past 70 years in order to protect their religious and cultural traditions. But since they were not Congress’s voting bloc, Congress never bothered to consider them. The Prime Minister declared, “SP, Congress, and INDIA bloc are trying to incite riots in the country by spreading false information about CAA.”

Also Read Sushil Kumar Modi, Bihar Former Deputy Chief Minister, Passes Away at 72

PM Modi further said that he “unmasked” the intentions of Congress and SP, adding that they can not end CAA. “It’s Modi who has unmasked you. You are a hypocrite, communal. You left this nation to burn in the communal fire for 60 years. I am saying it clearly, it’s Modi’s guarantee: ‘desh-videsh kahin se bhi, jo bhi taakat ikatthi karni hai kar lo’… You can’t end CAA. We are working on giving citizenship to those who are victims of partition, which has already started under CAA,” he added.

PM Modi further said that the excitement shown by the people of Srinagar in the polls is proof that no one can bring back Article 370 and do politics of “vote bank.” “Desh mein koi maai ka laal paida hua hai jo CAA hata sake? (has anyone been born in this country who can repeal the CAA?). Nobody can remove the CAA,” PM Modi said.

On Wednesday, the central government handed over the first set of citizenship certificates, over two months after notifying the rules for the Citizenship (Amendment) Act. Union Home Secretary Ajay Kumar Bhalla handed over citizenship certificates to some applicants. The Home Secretary congratulated the applicants and highlighted salient features of the Citizenship (Amendment) Rules, 2024, as per a statement by the Union Home Ministry.

The CAA, introduced by the Narendra Modi government and passed by Parliament in 2019, aims to confer Indian citizenship to persecuted non-Muslim migrants–including Hindus, Sikhs, Jains, Buddhists, Parsis, and Christians–who migrated from Bangladesh, Pakistan, and Afghanistan and arrived in India before December 31, 2014.

AFCAT Exam Pattern 2024: Total Marks and Negative Marking.

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AFCAT Exam Pattern 2024: Indian Air Force (IAF) officially releases AFCAT exam pattern to help students understand the structure of the exam. Understanding the AFCAT exam pattern enables the students to know the sections from where questions are asked in the exam. By going through the AFCAT exam pattern, candidates will also know the total marks, marking scheme, time duration, and question paper pattern. According to AFCAT exam pattern 2024, candidates are required to solve 100 questions, depending on whether they are trying for a technical or non-technical branch. According to AFCAT Exam Analysis, the overall difficulty level of the exam is moderate. Read below for more details on the exam pattern of AFCAT.

AFCAT Exam Pattern 2024

AFCAT and EKT exams are conducted in computer-based mode. Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT) is conducted for candidates who opt for Ground Duty (Technical) branch. The language of the exam is English. A total of 100 questions are asked in the AFCAT exam while EKT carries 50 questions. Candidates get two hours to solve AFCAT paper while 45 minutes for EKT. The test paper of AFCAT comprises questions from General Awareness, Verbal Ability in English, Numerical Ability, Military Reasoning, and Aptitude test. EKT comprises questions from Mechanical, Computer Science, and Electrical & Electronics. The difficulty level of AFCAT syllabus is of graduation level. The total marks allotted to AFCAT are 300 while EKT carries 150 marks.

AFCAT exam pattern highlights the overall structure of the exam such as number of sections, weightage of topics, time duration, total marks, marking scheme and many more. Candidates should prepare as per the exam pattern so that they get familar with the exam process.

Also Read:

AFCAT Exam Pattern

Candidates can check below the highlights of the AFCAT exam pattern.

ParametersDetails
Mode of examOnline
Number of sectionsAFCAT: FourEKT: Three
Number of questionsAFCAT: 100EKT: 50
Maximum marksAFCAT: 300EKT: 150
Type of questionsObjective type
AFCAT Paper DurationTwo hours
Language of paperEnglish

AFCAT Exam Pattern for Online Test

AFCAT exam pattern for online test is given below:

  • AFCAT online test is divided into four sections
  • The question paper of AFCAT comprises a total of 100 questions
  • The maximum marks allotted for AFCAT are 300
  • All questions asked in the AFCAT and EKT exams are objective type, having multiple options
  • The question paper is made available in English only
  • Candidates need to secure the minimum qualifying marks to qualify for the exam

The structure of AFCAT exam pattern is given below.

SubjectExam DurationNo of QuestionsMaximum Marks
General Awareness02 hours100300
Verbal Ability in English
Numerical Ability
Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test

How Many Papers are in AFCAT?

There are total of four papers in AFCAT according to AFCAT Exam Pattern which includes General Awareness, Verbal Ability in English, Numerical Ability and Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test. AFCAT paper duration is 150 minutes i.e two hours. Candidates need to score between 140 to 190 marks out of 300 in AFCAT exam.

Which Subjects are included in AFCAT exam?

According to AFCAT exam pattern, the subjects included in the exam are General Awareness, Verbal Ability in English, Numerical Ability and Reasoning, and Military Aptitude Test.

AFCAT Exam Pattern for EKT

The EKT exam is conducted for 45 minutes. The test paper carries questions from subjects such as Mechanical Engineering, Computer Science Engineering, and Electrical & Electronics Engineering. EKT paper carries a total of 50 questions. The maximum marks allotted for EKT exam are 150

The structure of EKT exam pattern is given below.

SubjectTimeNo. of QuestionsMaximum Marks
Mechanical 45 minutes50150
Computer Science
Electrical & Electronics

AFCAT Exam Pattern for Technical Branch

The structure of AFCAT exam pattern for Technical branch is given below.

SectionQuestionsMarksTime
Reasoning and military aptitude test351052 Hours
Verbal ability in English3090
Numerical ability1545
General awareness2060
Mechanics/ Computer science/ Electrical and electronics5015045 min

AFCAT Exam Pattern for Non-Technical Branch

Candidates who apply for ground duty (non-technical branches) should be aware of the AFCAT exam pattern for non-technical branch. The structure of the non-technical branch is given below.

SectionQuestionsMarksTime
Reasoning and military aptitude test351052 Hours
Verbal ability in English3090
Numerical ability1545
General awareness2060

AFCAT Exam Time

The online test of AFCAT is conducted for two hours. EKT is held for 45 minutes. AFCAT exam timings are given below:

Activity Shift 1Shift 2
Reporting time7.30 am12.30 pm
Verification of admit card & ID Proof, Biometrics, Photo/ Thumb Impression/ Sign on Attendance Sheet & candidate seating in exam hall 7.30 am to 9.30 am 12.30 am to 2 pm 
Reading of instructions by candidates9.30 am to 9.45 am 2 pm to 2.15 pm
AFCAT exam 9.45 am to 11.45 am 2.15 pm to 4.15 pm 

AFCAT Marking Scheme

The marking scheme of the AFCAT exam is given below:

  • For correct answers, candidates score three marks. The score of candidates is calculated after deducting AFCAT negative marking
  • There is AFCAT negative marking. One mark is deducted for every incorrect answer
  • No marks are allotted to unattempted questions

AFCAT Exam Pattern: Normalisation Process

AFCAT normalisation of marks is done to adjust the difficulty level of the question paper held across various sessions. This is done to ensure transparency in the calculation of scores.In order to rationalise the marks scored by candidates appearing in different shifts objectively through a statistical method, normalisation scheme is
being implemented as per the following formula:

AFCAT Normalisation

AFSB SSB Exam Pattern

Candidates qualifying the online test of AFCAT are called for AFSB interview. The AFSB interview is conducted in three stages at different centres-Dehradun, Varanasi, Gandhinagar and Mysuru. At AFSB, candidates need to undergo the following tests inorder to ascertain their suitability and gauge your potential as an Officer in the Indian Air Force.

Stage-I

Officer Intelligence Rating Test along with Picture Perception and discussion test is conducted on the first day. Stage-I test is a screening test and only those who qualify are called for subsequent testing. All Stage-I qualified candidates are subjected to document check to ascertain their eligibility for the branches applied for. Candidates who either do not qualify in Stage-I or do not meet the required eligibility criteria are sent back on the first day itself. 

Stage-II

All Stage 1 qualified candidates need to undergo tests as part of their Stage 2 testing during four to five days. Fifth day is for CPSS testing (Flying branch). The following tests are conducted in Stage 2:

  • Psychological Tests are written tests that are conducted by a Psychologist
  • Group Tests are interactive indoor and outdoor activities which are a combination of mental and physical work
  • Interview involves a personal conversation with an Interviewing Officer
  • Candidates who have applied for flying branch and have been recommended, will also have to undergo Computerised Pilot Selection System (CPSS) test

For Flying branch

Computerised Pilot Selection System (CPSS) will be administered to recommended candidates only. This is once in a lifetime test. Candidates who failed the CPSS/ PABT in an earlier attempt or a Flight Cadet suspended from flying training at Air Force Academy are not eligible.

Medical Test

Candidates recommended by the Selection Board, are sent for the medical examination either at Air Force Central Medical Establishment (AFCME), New Delhi or Institute of Aviation Medicine, Bengaluru.

AFCAT Syllabus

AFCAT syllabus is given below.

SubjectsTopics
EnglishComprehension, Error Detection, Antonyms and Testing of Vocabulary, Idioms and Phrases, Synonyms
General KnowledgeHistory, Civics, Geography, Politics, Art, Culture, Sports, Defence, Basic Science, Environment, Current Affairs
Reasoning and Military AptitudeSpatial Ability, Verbal Ability, Simple Interest Time and Distance, Ratio and Proportion, etc.
Numerical AbilityTime and Work, Decimal Fraction, Profit and Loss, Percentage, etc.

There are some notable modifications in the AFCAT Exam Pattern for 2024, especially with regard to negative marking and the distribution of total scores. These changes reflect a deliberate effort to improve the evaluation procedure by striking a balance between precision and accuracy when gauging candidates’ skills and knowledge. While the change in total scores provides a more accurate picture of candidates’ abilities, the addition of negative grading promotes careful planning and critical thought. As candidates are ready to manoeuvre through this revised pattern, it emphasises the value of careful planning, a calculated approach, and flexibility. The ultimate goal of the AFCAT Exam Pattern for 2024 is to promote a more open and merit-based hiring procedure, which will make it easier to find the best applicants to join the esteemed Indian Air Force.

CDS Exam Pattern 2024: Check CDS 1 & 2 Paper Pattern

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CDS exam pattern 2024: The Union Public Service Commission specifies the CDS exam pattern for the written exam and SSB Interview. UPSC lays the best career option for candidates who want to become a commissioned officer in the Indian Defence Forces. The candidate who wants to qualify for the CDS exam must go through the exam pattern and syllabus of the CDS exam.

CDS exam patterns for the INA, AFA, and IMA are similar but the CDS OTA exam pattern is slightly different from the other three. The CDS exam is conducted in two stages, the written exam and the SSB interview. The CDS exam is an offline exam conducted in pen paper-based format. The CDS marking scheme, negative marking, total marks, exam timing, and the paper pattern for the IMA, INA, AFA, and OTA are available below for the CDS exam.

Also Read What Is CDS Exam (Combined Defence Services Examination)

CDS Exam Pattern 2024

Candidates can check below, in brief, the exam pattern of the CDS exam.

ParametersDetails
Mode of examOffline
Number of sectionsIndian Military Academy (IMA), Indian Naval Academy (INA) and Air Force Academy (AFA)-ThreeOfficers’ Training Academy (OTA)-Two
Total marks of the testIMA, INA, and AFA-300OTA-200
Nature of questionsObjective type
Language of question paperHindi and English
Duration of the testTwo hours for each section of the test

CDS Exam Pattern for INA, AFA, IMA

The candidates appearing for the CDS exam to become defence personnel through INA, IMA and AFA must know the exam pattern. The candidates can understand the exam with a better perspective if they know the exam pattern. The UPSC CDS exam pattern has been given below for INA, IMA, and AFA:

  • The written exam for IMA, INA, and AFA comprises three sections: English, General Knowledge, and Elementary Mathematics
  • The total exam duration for IMA, INA, and AFA is six hours (each section is for two hours)
  • The total marks of the test for IMA, INA, and AFA are 300

CDS Exam Pattern for Written Test

The candidate can check the CDS written test exam pattern in the table below:

CDS Exam Pattern 
Mode of Exam Offline
Number of Subjects 3
Name of Subjects English, General Awareness, and Maths
Total Marks300 marks
Time Duration6 hours
Type of examObjective 
Medium of ExamBilingual (Hindi and English)

Also Read NDA Exam Pattern 2024: Marking Scheme, Question Distribution & Syllabus.

CDS Exam Pattern OTA

OTA (Officers Training Academy) has a different exam pattern as compared to the IMA, INA, and AFA exams. The exam pattern for the UPSC CDS OTA exam has been given below for the candidates to know the intricate pattern of the exam easily:

  • The written exam for OTA comprises two sections: English and General Knowledge
  • The total exam duration for OTA is four hours (each section is for two hours)
  • The total marks of the test for OTA are 200

Structure of CDS Question Paper

The structure of the CDS question paper for IMA, INA, AFA, and OTA is as follows: 

IMA, INA, AFA
SubjectDuration (In hours)Maximum Marks
English2 100
General Knowledge2 100
Elementary Mathematics2 100
OTA
SubjectDuration (In hours)Maximum Marks
English2 100
General Knowledge2 100

CDS Negative Marking

For a better understanding of the marking system of the CDS exam, the marking scheme of the CDS exam is given below. The candidates can go through the points to understand the exam marking scheme. The section-wise marking scheme has also been given for the candidate’s ease on the page below.

  • For the incorrect answer, 1/3 mark is deducted
  • Candidates marking more than one option are treated as incorrect 
  • If a question is left unanswered, there will be no negative marking 

Section Wise Marking Scheme

The section-wise marking scheme of the CDS exam has been given below for the candidates. The section-wise marking scheme will help the aspirants to understand the complex structure of the marking scheme: 

Specifications English GK Mathematics 
Maximum marks100100100
Marks for the correct answer+1 mark for each correct option+1 mark for each correct option+1 mark for each correct option
Negative marking-0.33 marks for each wrong answer-0.33 marks for each wrong answer-0.33 marks for each wrong answer

CDS Exam Pattern 2024 for SSB Interview

The SSB Interview for IMA, INA, and AFA is for 300 marks each while for OTA, it is 200. The SSB Interview procedure consists of two stages: I and II. Only those candidates who qualify the stage I are permitted to appear in stage II. The details of both stages are given below: 

  • Stage I comprises Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests and Picture Perception Description Test (PP&DT)
  • Stage II comprises Interviews, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests, and Conferences. These tests are conducted over days
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CDS Previous Years’ Paper Analysis

The previous years’ paper analysis for the CDS exam is given below. This analysis will help candidates to know the types of questions asked in the exam.

English

The English question paper is designed to test the candidates’ understanding of the English language. 

EnglishNo. of Questions
Cloze Test10
Preposition & Determinants10
Completion of Sentence10
Antonyms10
Part of Speech10
Spotting Error10
Ordering of Word in a Sentence10
Fill in the Blanks10
Synonyms10
Idioms & Phrases10
Ordering of Sentences10
Total120

Elementary Maths

The distribution of questions in this subject is given below.

TopicNo. of Questions
Mensuration14
Geometry20
Algebra7
Number system20
Trigonometry14
Average/Statistics4
Time and Work3
Speed & Distance6
Simple Interest and Compound Interest5
Percentage2
Clock2
Profit and Loss1
Mixture and allegation1
Set Theory1
Total100

General Awareness

The distribution of questions in GK paper is given below.

SubjectsNo. Of Questions
Geography16
History24
Economy11
Polity17
Physics11
Chemistry17
Biology7
Current Affairs18
Static/Misc.2
Total120

Instructions to fill CDS Answer Sheet

The candidates appearing for the CDS  exam must know the instructions to fill out the CDS exam answer sheet so that they do not make any mistakes while filling out the OMR answer sheet. The instructions to fill out the answer sheet are given below.

  • As soon as the candidate receives the answer sheet, they should check that it is numbered at the bottom. If it is found un-numbered they should at once get it replaced by a numbered one
  • Candidates should write with a black ball pen the name of the centre and subject in English or Hindi
  • The test booklet series is indicated by Alphabets A, B, C, or D at the top right-hand corner of the booklet
  • Write roll numbers exactly as it is in your e-Admission Certificate with a black ball pen in the boxes provided for this purpose. Do not omit any zero(s) which may be there
    The next step is to find out the appropriate subject code from the Time Table
  • Encode the Test Booklet Series, Subject Code, and Roll Number in the circles provided for this purpose. Do the encoding with a black ball pen. The name of the Centre need not be encoded
    Writing and encoding of the Test Booklet Series is to be done after receiving the Test Booklet and confirming the Booklet Series from the same

CDS Syllabus 2024

The standard of the papers in Elementary Mathematics is of Matriculation level. The standard of papers in other subjects is approximately such as may be expected of a graduate of an Indian University. The question paper is designed to test the candidates’ understanding of English and workmanlike use of words. General Knowledge includes knowledge of current events and such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person who has not made a special study of any scientific subject. The paper also includes questions on the History of India and the Geography of nature which the candidate should be able to answer without special study. Candidates can check the topics included in the CDS syllabus.

Subjects Topics 
English The question paper is designed to test the candidates’ understanding of
English and Grammar
General Knowledge Economics, Physics, General Awareness, Politics, History, Geography, Sociology, etc. 
Elementary Mathematics Arithmetic, Algebra, Trigonometry, Geometry, Mensuration, Statistics, etc.

CDS Best Preparation

The candidates preparing for the CDS exam must go through the CDS best books for the preparation. The list of the CDS books been given below for the candidates in the table :

Name of BooksSubjectAuthor/Publications
Objective General EnglishEnglishS.P Bakshi (Arihant Publications)
Manorama Year BookGeneral AwarenessPhilip Mathew
Quantitative Aptitude for Competitive Exam Quantitative AptitudeR.S Aggarwal

Other Defence Exam Patterns

NDA exam patternAFCAT exam patternUPSC CAPF exam pattern

The CDS Exam Pattern for 2024 is a demanding framework that evaluates candidates’ readiness for service in the Indian Armed Forces. It covers both CDS 1 and 2. The complex combination of courses, which range from Elementary Mathematics to General Knowledge and English, together with the various patterns for each academy guarantees a thorough assessment of the abilities and knowledge of applicants. Candidates for officer positions should become well-versed in the required course material and testing structure in order to maximise their readiness and raise their likelihood of passing. Candidates can successfully manage the obstacles of the CDS Exam Pattern by using smart study methods, discipline, and dedication. This will ultimately pave the way for a rewarding career serving the country with honour and distinction.

What Is CDS Exam (Combined Defence Services Examination)

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Discover the CDS Exam, which becomes an opening to membership in the Indian Military. Crucial information to launch your defence profession.

What is CDS Exam?

  • It is written test conducted by UPSC two times every year for entries into these academies. CDS written exam has three different tests namely English, General Knowledge and Mathematics.
  • Notification Month of this Exam: March (CDS II) and August (CDS I)
  • Examination Conducted in the months of February (CDS I) and August (CDS II).

Also Read CDS 2 2024: Application (Out), Notification, Eligibility, Pattern, Syllabus & More

Age Limit for CDS Examination

  • 19-24 Years of age for Indian Military Academy
  • 19-22 Years of age for Naval Academy
  • 19-23 Years of age for Air Force Academy
  • 19-25 Years of age for Officers’ Training Academy

Educational Qualification for CDS Examination

  • Degree of a recognized University or equivalent for IMA and OTA
  • B.Sc. with Physics & Mathematics or Bachelor of Engg. for Naval Academy
  • B.Sc. with Physics and/or Mathematics or Bachelor of Engg. for Air Force Academy

Also Read UPSC CDS 2024: Application (Out), Alert, Time, Schedule, Qualifications, Courses, and Up-to-Date Information.

The Indian Military Academy (IMA)

  • An officer-training academy of the Indian Army in Dehradun, Uttarakhand.
  • It was established in 1932 following a recommendation by a military committee set up under the chairmanship of Field Marshal Philip Chetwode.
  • Cadets undergo a training course varying between 3 and 16 months depending on entry criteria.
  • Colours of IMA: Blood Red and Steel Grey.
  • Motto of IMA: “Veerta aur Vivek” “वीरता और विवेक”
  • Mission of IMA: To train future military leaders of the Indian Army, goes hand in hand with the character building enshrined in the IMA honour code, warrior code and motto.
  • Cadets take part in a variety of sports, adventure activities, physical training, drills, weapons training, and leadership development activities.

The Indian Naval Academy (INA)

  • Initial Officer Training Academy of Indian Navy
  • Location: Ezhimala, Kannur, Kerala
  • INA conducts basic training for all officers inducted into the Indian Navy and Indian Coast Guard.
  • INA is the largest Naval Academy in Asia.
  • Inaugurated on 8th January 2009
  • Motto in Sanskrit: “Vidyayaa Amrutam Ashnute” “विद्ययाऽमृतमश्नुते“

Mission of INA: To develop the trainees morally, mentally, physically and to imbibe in them the high ideals of loyalty, valour and patriotism in order to provide the service with officers who are dedicated to a career of Naval Service and have potential for future development to assume the highest responsibility of leadership.

The Air Force Academy (AFA)

  • Located in Medchal-Malkajgiri district 43 km from Hyderabad, in Telangana.
  • It imparts training to the flying, technical and ground duty branches of IAF as well as officers of the Indian Navy & the Indian Coast Guard.
  • Period of training: 1 year.
  • Women cadets are being inducted since June 1993.
  • Motto: “Shram se Siddhi” “श्रम से सिद्धि”
  • Mission of AFA: To inspire and transform outstanding young men and women into courageous, dynamic, intellectual and cultured young Air Warriors; motivated to lead one of the leading aerospace forces of the world in service to the nation.
  • The training at the Air Force Academy is designed to inculcate moral values, leadership qualities, sense of honour and duty, mental and physical prowess, a spirit of adventure and the will to win, in the Flight Cadets.

Also Read NDA Exam Date 2024 Out: UPSC NDA 2 Exam Schedule.

The Officers’ Training Academy (OTA)

  • Training establishment of the Indian Army that train officers for the Short Service Commission (SSC).
  • Course duration: 49 weeks course
  • OTA prepares graduates for all branches of the Army, except for the Army Medical Corps (AMC).
  • Motto of OTA: “Serve With Honour”
  • The SSC Short Service commission officer’s tenure is 10+4 years (i.e. a compulsory 10 years of service and 4 years as extension).
  • After the completion of this tenure the officers can either opt for a Permanent commission (which will be given only based upon the performance seen by confidential reports, etc.) or can opt out of the Indian Army.
  • The ex NDA and CTW officers have a slight edge over their SSC counterparts in courses owing to the fact that they have trained three years more than the SSC entries.
  • You can convert from a short service commission to a permanent commission, however the vice versa is not possible.

Rakhi Sawant Suffering from Cancer? Big Revelation About Her Health.

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Rakhi Sawant was admitted to the hospital on May 14 after experiencing chest and stomach pains.

Rakhi Sawant’s ex-husband, Ritesh Raj Singh, has disclosed that the actress and reality TV star is currently facing a serious health challenge. According to Singh, doctors have found a tumour in Sawant’s uterus and suspect it might be cancerous.

Rakhi Sawant, known for her vibrant presence on television and in Bollywood, was admitted to the hospital on May 14 after experiencing chest and stomach pains. According to the latest reports from News18, following a series of tests, the medical team discovered the tumour, leading to concerns about a possible cancer diagnosis.

Singh, who was introduced to the public as Sawant’s husband during her stint on the reality show Bigg Boss 15.

Also Read Taylor Swift And Billie Eilish Music Graces The Bridgerton Season 3, Release Time.

“She was admitted to the hospital last night after she complained of chest pain. Doctors are looking after her. They have discovered a tumour in her uterus. She had pain in her stomach too. Doctors have suspected that it might be cancer. Tests are being done. Doctors have proposed surgery but they want to check first if it is cancer or not.”: Ritesh told to News18

The medical team is currently conducting further tests to confirm the nature of the tumour and determine the appropriate course of action. Singh mentioned that while surgery has been proposed, the doctors are proceeding with caution until they have a definitive diagnosis.

The news has sent shockwaves through Sawant’s supporters, with many taking to social media to express their concern and support for the actress. Singh has called for prayers and positive thoughts for Sawant’s speedy recovery.

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